In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If someone fasts three days each month and he fasts the six days of Shawal, does that suffice him from fasting the three days of the month, or does he fast three days with it making it nine days?

📝 The answer:

It suffices him from fasting the three days of each month as he fasted three days, and increased three days on top of that, thus he attains the reward of fasting the six days of Shawal and he attains the reward of fasting the three days of each month for he combined between the two affairs.

Similarly, the one who fasts on Mondays and Thursdays and so he fasts Mondays and Thursdays in the month of Shawal, then that suffices him from fasting the six days of Shawal. And all aid and assistance lies with Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16666

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_ supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the three days of each month and intend with it the six days of Shawal, or is the fasting of the six days of Shawal a separate, distinct act of worship?

📝 The answer:

The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال فكأنما صام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."

So whoever fasts the supererogatory fasts for Allahs sake in the month of Shawal and thus fasts six supererogatory fasts, then he attains the mentioned virtue regardless of if he fasts it on Mondays and Thursdays, or during the white days, or on other days.

That which is apparent is that it suffices and that he will attain the virtue. This is because the intent is to gain nearness to Allah in the month of Shawal by fasting six days, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16668

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_ supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the six days of Shawal and to intend with it the fasting for a Kafarah (expiation)?

📝 The answer:

Such a fast is not correct because the fasting for a Kafarah is obligatory thus it is impermissible to combine it with another intention. It is obligatory upon you to single it out with the intention of Kafarah.

Hence, it is not correct to fast the six days of Shawal and intend with it the fasting for a Kafarah, whereby you intend this one and that one.

(إنما الأعمال بالنيات وإنما لكل امرئ مانوى)
“Actions are to be judged only by intentions and a man will have only what he intended.”

If one wishes to fast the six days on Mondays and Thursdays then it suffices. If one intends to fast supererogatory fasts in the month of Shawal on Mondays and Thursdays and the three white days then it sufficies him from the six days of Shawal if the total amount reaches or exceeds six, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16670

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

A woman says: She was fasting the six days of Shawal and on one of the days she got up from sleep and she drank water. After drinking the water she heard the Iqama for the prayer, hence she came to know that she had drank after the time had entered. What is the ruling of her fast?

📝 The answer:

Her fast is correct as she drank whilst she thought that it is still night time whilst she had firm determination of fasting that day, thus her fast is correct and there is no problem upon her as she drank whilst being ignorant of the time entering.

It is like that which happened to ‘Adi bin Haatim when he was eating and drinking whilst he thought that the time is still the time where it's prescribed for him to eat, until the speech of Allah (تعالى) was revealed:
{ من الفجر}
“From the dawn”
Thus they came to know that the intent is the blackness of the night and the whiteness of the dawn.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16672

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the six days outside of Shawal? If someone delayed it due to illness or travelling, or a woman was post-partum and so she missed all of Ramadhaan and spent all of Shawal making up missed fasts, is it sufficient to fast the six days in the month of Dhul Qa'dah?

📝 The answer:

This is a restricted worship to be done in Shawal only, so it is not sufficient except in Shawal. It is a restricted worship and a restricted practice. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال كان كصيام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."
Thus, if one misses Shawal then he misses out on this virtue.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16672

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

If it is recommended to make up the habitual supererogatory fasts another day, does this include the one who misses ‘Aashooraa, ‘Arafah or the six days of Shawal?

📝 The answer:

These habitual restricted fasts have come restricted. The six days are restricted to Shawal thus the one who misses it (the month) misses fasting it as it is restricted to Shawal, however he should fast the supererogatory fasts from the remaining months as much as Allah guides him towards.

Similarly ‘Aashooraa and ‘Arafah are restricted supererogatory actions, and its virtue is restricted, however, there's no issue in him fasting supererogatory fasts. The one who misses the day, he misses the habitual fasting and he misses the virtue ascribed to that habitual day, hence if he makes it up on another day then its reward is not like that if he were to fast that exact day. He will be rewarded in Shaa Allah, there's nothing wrong with him fasting another day in place of it however its virtue is not like the virtue because that day is virtuous in and of itself, specific days which are virtuous for fasting to be done in them, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16678

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

Is it permissible for one to fast the six days of Shawal before making up the missed fasts which are upon him from Ramadhaan?

📝 The answer:

The Prophet (ﷺ) stated:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال كان كصيام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."

So to act in accordance with the apparent meaning of this Hadith is what should be done, and that is to begin with making up the missed fasts followed by the six days of Shawal.

However, it is not apparent from the context of the Hadith that the one who fasts the six days of Shawal first and then makes up the missed fasts which are upon him, that he will not attain the virtue, because he is considered to have fasted Ramadhan. The one who makes up missed fasts takes the ruling of the one who fasted it, so In Shaa Allah he will attain the virtue and Allah knows best.

However, that which is best is to begin with making up the missed fasts. Allah (عز وجل) stated:
(وما تقرب عبدي إلي بشيء أحب إلي مما افترضته عليه)
“And the most beloved thing with which My slave comes nearer to Me is what I have enjoined upon him”
So it is not appropriate for a Muslim to delay making up the missed fasts and to start with the supererogatory acts for this is in opposition to that which is best.

Some people of knowledge said: his speech: (ثم أتبعه) “and then follows it with” implies that the Hadith will not apply for a person unless he starts with making up the missed fasts first.

However, if we were to take a look at the meaning, then there is no doubt that the one who missed fasts due to a valid reason and then made up what was upon him from Ramadhaan then he takes the ruling of the one who fasted Ramadhaan, no one opposes us in this. The one who missed a fast due to travels or sickness, or for a woman the menses or post-partum, and then they made up the missed fasts which were upon them in the following months, then they take the ruling of the one who fasted it (the month of Ramadhaan).

Hence, that which is apparent is that they attain the reward as the meaning is the same, especially since it could be extremely difficult upon them such as for women, perhaps many fasts pile up on them such so that they cannot combine between the two virtues (six days and making up missed fasts), so perhaps they may need to fast the supererogatory fasts followed by making up the missed fasts.

And that which we advise with, if there is no difficulty upon her, is for her to make up the missed fasts first.

And whomsoever doesn’t fast the whole month of Ramadhaan due to a valid reason then without a doubt they begin with making up the missed fasts. How can one fast the supererogatory fasts and they haven’t fasting anything from Ramadhaan? And all Perfect Praise with Love and Veneration is exclusively for Allah.


Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16676

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a woman using contraceptive pills which causes the menstruation to stop so that she can fast?

📝 The answer:

Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) created the woman upon this nature, and that is the exiting of menstrual blood from her every month generaly. For a woman to remain according to her nature is more correct for her body, and better for her.

The legislation has commanded her to not fast and make up those fasts which she missed. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) who said:
كنا نُؤمرُ بِقضاء الصيام ولا نُؤمرُ بقضاء الصلاة
“We were ordered to make up for the fast, but were not ordered to make up for the prayer.”
i.e. during menstruation.

So for her to remain upon her natural state is better for her, and using these pills may effect her health, thus, leaving it off is better. It may cause some women harm, and those women for whom it causes harm whilst she knows that that is the case, then it is impermissible for her. If it causes harm then for her it is impermissible. As for some women it may not cause harm due to it being used rarely on a monthly occasion, so perhaps it may not cause any harm or it may cause some slight pains only.

It is disliked for the one who it causes slight pain for, as for the one who faces extreme pain and harm then it is impermissible for them.

(لا ضرر ولا ضرار)
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.”
﴿وَلا تُلْقُوا بِأَيْدِيكُمْ إِلَى التَّهْلُكَةِ﴾
“Do not contribute to your destruction with your own hands”

As for the acceptance of her fast, if no blood leaves her then the fast is correct. If her menstrual blood has stopped and doesn’t exit her, and she fasts, then the fast is correct. However, from the angle of advice, then the woman is advised to leave this off and to remain upon her natural state and that is better for her.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16732

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_post_natal_bleeding

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Some people from the past due to ignorance got married in Ramadhaan and thus didn’t fast the whole month due to having intercourse with their spouse?

📝 The answer:

We seek refuge in Allah, this is a major sin, and the likes of this is not unknown amongst the Muslims. All the Muslims know that it is obligatory upon them to leave off food, drink and sexual intercourse. Hence, upon him is to seek repentance and to ask for forgiveness from this major sin.

If he believed that this was permissible for him due to ignorance, or due to him finding someone who issued him a verdict that this is permissible for the married individual as a concession from Allah, then this is extreme ignorance, however the affair is less serious and upon him is to make up the missed fasts.

If he was in doubt and he came across some people saying: ‘The married individual has a concession from fasting’ and so he didn’t fast, then this affair is less serious than the one before.

The one who takes sins lightly, then this is an extremely major sin and he is not able to make it up. As for the one who is in doubt, and he comes across those who issue him a religious verdict, thus believing this is permissible for him, then for such a person is to make up the missed fasts. As for the first person, then making up the fasts will not benefit him as he intended to transgress the boundaries.

The second person: was in doubt due to ignorance that due to his marriage he is not obligated to fast. This is possible of happening in some remote places faraway from knowledge and education, or amongst the non-Arabs, or the likes of this, so this second person must make up the missed fasts. As for the first person who intended whilst knowing that it is impermissible, then making it up will not benefit him, upon him is to seek repentance, to have remorse and to seek forgiveness, and upon him is to seek forgiveness from Allah in abundance.

Is there Kafarah (expiation) upon him for each day? i.e. for the one who is not ignorant of its impermissibility?
The answer: If he was not fasting from the start of the day to begin with, he did not intend to fast to begin with, then there are no Kafarahs upon him as he left off fasting to start with. He did not even intend to fast. As for if he broke his fast with sexual intercourse, then upon him is Kafarah for each day.

And without a doubt the Kafarah is transferred to feeding (the poor/needy) as fasting will be very difficult upon him. i.e. if we were to say: ‘for each day he must fast’, then he must fast sixty months. Thus, it is transferred to feeding, there is no doubt that it is transferred to feeding, and this is from the ease of the legislation upon him, and Allah knows best.


Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16728

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_expiations_for_those_who_break_their_fast

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: The Hadith:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم حتى نقول: إنه لا يفطر، ويفطر حتى نقول: إنه لا يصوم
The Prophet (ﷺ) used to fast until we would say: ‘He won't stop fasting’, and he would not fast until we would say: ‘He won't start fasting.'
What does this Hadith mean?

📝 The answer:

This Hadith is established in the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah and Anas, and it has come from other than them. The meaning of the Hadith is that the Prophet (ﷺ) would set forth in fasting some of his days, day after day, three, four, and more than that. Many days in a row until they said: ‘He won’t break his fast’ i.e. he will continue.

Then he (ﷺ) will not fast for many consecutive days until it was said: ‘he will not fast during this month’ and then he will fast after that.

And its meaning is that he (ﷺ) wouldn’t have specific days of the month that he would habitualy fast. And a proof for this is the Hadith of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) in Saheeh Muslim whereby she said:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم من كل شهر ثلاثة أيام
“The Prophet (ﷺ) would fast three days of every month.”
It was said to ‘A’ishah:
من أي أيام الشهر كان يصوم؟
“Which days of the month would he fast?
She said:
لم يكن يبالي من أي أيام الشهر صام، فمرة يقدم، ومرة يؤخر، ليس له أيام معلومة في صومه صلى الله عليه وسلم.
“He did not pay attention to which days of the month he fasted, sometimes he will do it at the start, and other times during the end, he did not have known days with regards to his (ﷺ) fasting.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16724

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If a woman becomes pure from her post-natal bleeding after twenty days, must she fast?

📝 The answer:

Yes, she is obliged to fast by unanimous consensus of the scholars. It is not obliged for those going through post-natal bleeding to remain forty days, this is incorrect. Some people think that she is obliged to stay for forty days, this is a great error, rather she must stay until the bleeding stops. If the post-natal bleeding stops after twenty days for argument sake, or thirty, or twenty five, then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she becomes permissible for her husband.

That which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the blood according to the consensus of the scholars, with regards to that which is less than forty days by unanimous consensus of the scholars. They differed on whether if the bleeding doesn’t stop after reaching forty days.

Some of them said: forty days is sufficient for her, so she must take her Ghusl and pray. The correct view in this matter is that she waits for the blood to stop. So that which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the bleeding, even if she reaches fifty days, she continues not praying nor fasting until it stops.

Thus, it is incumbent upon the husbands to inform their wives, and it is incumbent upon the women to inform each other with regards to this ruling. Many of the women, especially in the villages, are ignorant of this ruling. They wait forty days, this is an error. If the bleeding stops then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she does not wait for forty days. The difference of opinion between the scholars is only in the scenario if she passes forty days, is only forty days sufficient for her or must she continue waiting, this is the difference of opinion. And the correct view in this is that she must wait for the bleeding to stop as long as it (the blood) still has its known characteristics, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16753

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_nullifiers_of_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_purity_taharah
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_postnatal_bleeding

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Is the prayer nullified if the person prays and he has some food in his mouth?

📝 The answer:

If he swallows the food while it is manifest and he can get rid of it, and he can feel it, then it nullifies his prayer. If he put water in his mouth and spat it out, and he tries hard in removing the remains of the food but small remnants remain which he is not aware of, it flows with his saliva, then the scholars said: ‘It is not possible to take precaution against this and it does not nullify the prayer nor the fast’.

As for if he can feel it, and he can get rid of it, then he must not swallow it, not in the prayer and not during the fast, as it will nullify the worship. May Allah grand us and your success.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16774

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_prayer_salah
#Fatwas_on_actions_of_the_prayer

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📩 Question:

From the well-known affairs is that the one who leaves of an obligation from the obligations of the prayer intentionally then his prayer is invalid, what is the evidence for this?

📝 The answer:

Firstly: The speech of the questioner is with regards to the obligation which is not a pillar, as for the pillar, then leaving it off nullifies the prayer according to the unanimous concensus of the scholars.

However, his speech is with regards to an obligation that necessitates the prostration of forgetfulness if it is forgotten.

The evidence that the one who leaves it off intentionally then his prayer is invalid is the Hadith of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) in the Saheehayn that the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(مَنْ أَحْدَثَ فِي أَمْرِنَا هَذَا مَا لَيْسَ مِنْهُ فَهُوَ رَدٌّ)
“He who espouses a new affair in this matter of ours (i.e., Islam) that is not from it will have it rejected (by Allah).”
And in the narration of Muslim:
(مَنْ عَمِلَ عَمَلاً لَيْسَ عَلَيْهِ أَمْرُنَا فَهُوَ رَدٌّ)
“He who did any act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, that is to be rejected.”

Hence, leaving of an obligation intentionally indicates negligence in the prayer, and showing no care for the commandments of Allah. You have left of an obligation from your own accord and not due to the legislation.

You have espoused in this religion and have transgressed against your Rabb. This is an indication of disobedience towards Allah and His Messenger, that one leaves of an obligation intentionally, how can his prayer be accepted?! He leaves off its obligations intentionally thus the prayer is invalid, Imam Ahmad mentioned this as well as others from the people of knowledge.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16770

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_prayer_salah

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📩 Question:

A man says: His wife is fatigued from pregnancy, and her fatigue leads to extreme frailness in the bones which leads to lack of movement from her, is it permissible for her to use some methods of contraception?

📝 The answer:

If the fatigue that she goes through is excessive according to the intelligent proficient doctors, then there is no issue in preventing from the angle of removing the greater harm by taking the lesser of the two evils. It is permissible to remove the greater of the two evils, rather a person is commanded with this due to the speech of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ ضَرَرَ وَلاَ ضِرَارَ)
"There should neither be harming (of others without cause), nor reciprocating harm (between two parties)."

And before that the speech of Allah (سبحانه وتعالى):
﴿يُرِيدُ ٱللَّهُ بِكُمُ ٱلْيُسْرَ وَلَا يُرِيدُ بِكُمُ ٱلْعُسْرَ﴾
“Allah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you.”

And the speech of Allah (تعالى):
﴿وَمَا جَعَلَ عَلَيْكُمْ فِى ٱلدِّينِ مِنْ حَرَجٍۢ ﴾
“And He has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”.

However, it is incumbent to investigate the speech of the doctors, and all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Likewise, one must take the type of contraception which has the least harm, so she must not go and take those methods of contraception which lead to a greater harm than she is already facing.

As for using contraception without a need then it is Haram if it causes harm to the woman, and disliked if it doesn’t cause her harm, because it leads to harming her and preventing offspring which the legislation has commanded with and encouraged.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16782

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
#Fatwas_on_women

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of the one who says that the Prophet (ﷺ) did not convey everything he was commanded to convey?

📝 The answer:

The person who says this is a disbeliever due to rejecting the evidence in the Qur’an and the Sunnah. Allah says regarding the Prophet (ﷺ):
{ٱلْيَوْمَ أَكْمَلْتُ لَكُمْ دِينَكُمْ وَأَتْمَمْتُ عَلَيْكُمْ نِعْمَتِى وَرَضِيتُ لَكُمُ ٱلْإِسْلَـٰمَ دِينًۭا}
“This day, I have perfected your religion for you, completed My Favour upon you, and have chosen for you Islam as your religion.”

And in the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) that she said:
من أخبركم أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم كتم شيئاً من الوحي فقد أعظم على الله الفرية ولو كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم كاتما شيئا لكتم هذه الآية:
Whoever tells you that the Prophet (ﷺ) concealed parts of the revelation, then they have uttered one of the worst lies against Allah. If the Prophet (ﷺ) was to conceal anything which was sent to him, then he would have concealed:
{وَإِذْ تَقُولُ لِلَّذِي أَنْعَمَ اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَأَنْعَمْتَ عَلَيْهِ أَمْسِكْ عَلَيْكَ زَوْجَكَ وَاتَّقِ اللَّهَ وَتُخْفِي فِي نَفْسِكَ مَا اللَّهُ مُبْدِيهِ وَتَخْشَى النَّاسَ وَاللَّهُ أَحَقُّ أَن تَخْشَاهُ}
“And (remember) when you said to him (Zaid bin Harithah رضي الله عنه) on whom Allah has bestowed Grace and you have done favour "Keep your wife to yourself, and fear Allah." But you did hide in yourself that which Allah will make manifest, you did fear the people whereas Allah had a better right that you should fear Him.”

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16805

#Fatwas_on_aqeedah_and_tawheed
#Fatwas_on_nullifiers_of_islam
#Fatwas_on_wordings

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of Mut’ah Nikaah?

📝 The answer:

Mut’ah Nikaah means for a man to marry a woman for an appointed time period, so he stipulates at the time of the contract that the time period of the marital contract is one month, or two months, or for a few days, and this type of marriage is Haram, impermissible and it is a null marital contract.

The Prophet (ﷺ) gave concession for this type of Nikaah at the beginning, then he prohibited it. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنِّي قَدْ كُنْتُ أَذِنْتُ لَكُمْ فِي الاِسْتِمْتَاعِ مِنَ النِّسَاءِ وَإِنَّ اللَّهَ قَدْ حَرَّمَ ذَلِكَ إِلَى يَوْمِ الْقِيَامَةِ فَمَنْ كَانَ عِنْدَهُ مِنْهُنَّ شَىْءٌ فَلْيُخَلِّ سَبِيلَهُ)
“I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off”

So this Nikaah became impermissible and it is considered to be null. If a man agrees with a woman to marry for a specified time period then it is a marital contract which is null, and him consummating the marriage is considered as Zina (illegal sexual intercourse).

Mut’ah Nikaah would end when the stipulatd time period had come to an end witout the need for divorce. Also, it was not from the conditions for a Wali (guardian) to be present, rather the consent of the woman only. Then this Nikaah became Haram. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16803

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikaah_marital_contracts_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of free-mixing in education between men and women in one classroom?

📝 The answer:

This is not permissible for it is the reason for fitnah (trial/temptation) taking place. Allah (تعالى) states:
﴿قُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنِينَ يَغُضُّوا مِنْ أَبْصَارِهِمْ وَيَحْفَظُوا فُرُوجَهُمْ ذَلِكَ أَزْكَى لَهُمْ إِنَّ اللَّهَ خَبِيرٌ بِمَا يَصْنَعُونَ* وَقُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنَاتِ يَغْضُضْنَ مِنْ أَبْصَارِهِنَّ وَيَحْفَظْنَ فُرُوجَهُنَّ﴾
“Tell the believing men to lower their gaze (from looking at forbidden things) and protect their private parts (from illegal sexual acts). That is purer for them. Verily, Allah is All-Aware of what they do.”
“And tell the believing women to lower their gaze (from looking at forbidden things), and protect their private parts (from illegal sexual acts)”

Men getting together with women in one place, regardless of it being for education, governmental jobs, or non-governmental jobs whereby a man sees a woman and a woman sees a man, and perhaps more than that will occur such as sitting with her continuously. He sees her whilst she is wearing a beautified Jilbaab, and perhaps her beauty is on display whereby she beautifies her hands and face, and some women may expose their faces and some women may expose their eyes. Furthermore, many of the women wear tight Jilbaabs which outlines and cups her body parts, all of this is Fitnah, it is obligatory to distance oneself from this, and it is not permissible to work in a place where there is free-mixing with women as this is a reason for Fitnah.

In the Hadith, the Prophet ﷺ said:
(إِيَّاكُمْ وَالدُّخُولَ عَلَى النِّسَاءِ)
"Beware of entering upon the women."
So a man from the Ansaar said:
يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ، أَفَرَأَيْتَ الْحَمْو
"Allah's Apostle! What about Al-Hamu (the in-laws of the wife the brothers of her husband or his nephews etc.)?
He said:
(الْحَمْوُ الْمَوْتُ)
“The in-laws of the wife are death itself.”
Agreed upon on the authority of Usaamah bin Zayd (رضي الله عنه).

And the Prophet ﷺ said:
(اتَّقُوا الدُّنْيَا وَاتَّقُوا النِّسَاءَ، فَإِنَّ أَوَّلَ فِتْنَةِ بَنِي إِسْرَائِيلَ كَانَتْ فِي النِّسَاءِ)
“Beware of (the temptations of) this world and beware of (the temptations of) women, for the first trial of the children of Israel had to do with women."
Reported by Muslim on the authority of Abu Sa’eed al-Khudri (رضي الله عنه).

And the Prophet ﷺ said:
(أَيُّمَا امْرَأَةٍ اسْتَعْطَرَتْ، فَمَرَّتْ عَلَى قَوْمٍ لِيَجِدُوا مِنْ رِيحِهَا فَهِيَ زَانِيَةٌ)
“Any woman who puts on perfume then passes by people so that they can smell her fragrance then she is an adulteress.”
Reported by Ahmad, Abu Dawud and An-Nasa’i on the authority of Abu Musa al-Ash’ari (رضي الله عنه) and it is a Sahih Hadith.

From the greatest of things that the enemies of Islam strive for is the calling to men and women free-mixing in the work place, rather they even call for her participation in recruitment and in the army. This is from the plots of the enemies of Islam to corrupt the Muslims so that immorality can become present amongst them, and for Zina (illegal sexual intercourse) to become widespread.

This is from the greatest reasons of falling into Zina, for a man to sit with a woman, to be alone with her, to speak and laugh with her, we seek Allahs refuge.

The Prophet ﷺ said:
(لَا يَخْلُوَنَّ رَجُلٌ بِامْرَأَةٍ إِلَّا كَانَ ثَالِثَهُمَا الشَّيْطَانُ)
“No man should be alone with a woman because Shaytaan will be the third one present.”
Reported by Ahmad on the authority of ‘Umar bin al-Khattaab (رضي الله عنه).

These are reasons for Fitnah taking place, and for the hearts to become sick. How many people started and became lenient with regards to looking, and then after looking it was followed with conversing and speaking, then smiling and laughing, then after that setting dates and meeting up, and then before he knows, Shaytaan tempts him into falling into the immorality of Zina, refuge is sought from Allah.

As the person said: 'Looking followed with smiling and greeting… speaking followed by setting a date and then meeting.'
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.

It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”

And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.

So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.

It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.

And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of standing up for someone who has come from a journey or other than a journey?

📝 The answer:

If he has come, regardless of it being from a journey or other than a journey, and he stood up in order to shake his hand or hug him, then there is no problem. The standing up is not for the man himself rather the standing up is for the greeting or the hugging, hence this is permissible and there is no issue.

It has been authentically established on the authority of Hasan al-Basri with al-Bayhaqi with an authentic chain of transmission, and it has come on the authority of Anas with Al-Tabrani with a chain of transmission which is acceptable that they both said:
(كان أصحاب النبي ﷺ إذا التقوا تصافحوا، وإذا قدِموا من سفر تعانقوا)
“The companions of the Prophet (ﷺ) would shake hands if they met, and when they would return from a journey they would hug”

So a standing person hugging a seated person is not something which is ordinary, and it also leads to the standing person needing to bow down, so that which is best is for him to stand, and there is no issue with this standing as it is not a standing in order to venerate the man and neither for the purpose of worship. Not the standing of worship, nor the standing of veneration rather it is standing for another purpose.

As the Prophet (ﷺ) said as has come in the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها):
(لما جاء سعد بن معاذ رضي الله عنه، قال: "قُومُوا إِلَى سَيِّدِكُمْ)
“When Sa’d bin Mu’aadh (رضي الله عنه) came he said: “stand up for your chief”
i.e. to lower him from his donkey, because he was injured and so that they can receive him.

Also in the Saheehayn when K’ab bin Malik (رضي الله عنه) repented when Allah revealed with regards to his repentance, Talha bin ‘Ubaydullah (رضي الله عنه) stood up to run towards him. He (Ka’b) said: “until he shook my hand and congratulated me.” He stood and ran towards him and so Ka’b never forgot this gesture from Talha.

This standing is for incidental matters, not for venerating him. As for standing in order to venerate the person then this is impermissible. It has come in the Musnad of Imam Ahmad on the authority of Mu’aawiyah bin Abi Sufyaan (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet ﷺ said:
(مَنْ أَحَبَّ أَنْ يَمْثُلَ لَهُ عِبَادُ اللَّهِ قِيَامًا، فَلْيَتَبَوَّأْ مَقْعَدَهُ مِنَ النَّارِ)
“Let him who likes people to stand up before him prepare his place in Hell.”
i.e. a man being venerated, and he desires from the people to stand up for his coming, this is Haram, and due to this it has come in the Sunan of Abu Dawud on the authority of Anas (رضي الله عنه) who said:
ما كان أحد أحبَ إليهم، من رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم، وكانوا لا يقومون له، لما يعلمون من كراهيته لذلك.
“There was no person more beloved to them than the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ), and they would not stand when they saw him because they knew that he disliked that."
i.e. the standing of veneration as is done by the disbelievers for their kings whereby they rise up and stand erected in front of him.

Hence, standing for an incidental purpose is ok, whilst standing in order to venerate the person is Haram. Furthermore, that which they do in schools whereby they make them stand up for the teacher when he enters by way of veneration, then this also is included in the Haram. As for standing for the purpose of exercise as is done in the school playgrounds, then this is allowed and prescribed, and as for remaining still which they call ‘waqfatu ‘alam’ standing still for the flag, then this is impermissible and it is an imitation of the enemies of Islam.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16285

#Fatwas_on_adab_ettiquetes
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_matters
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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If brown or yellow discharge leaves a woman whilst the time for her menstrual cycle is after a day or two from this day, is that which has left considered to be menstruation and so she doesn’t fast?

📝 The answer:

That which leaves a woman before the exiting of the menstrual blood, regardless of if it being some remnants (of old blood) or yellow discharge, it is not considered to be menstrual blood until her bleeding begins. Upon this, she must pray and fast, and she continues in her prayer and fasting until the bleeding begins.

As soon as the bleeding begins it is obligatory upon her to stop praying and fasting due to the Hadith of Umm ‘Atiyyah (رضي الله عنها) in Bukhari and Abu Dawud whereby she said:
كُنَّا لاَ نَعُدُّ الصُّفْرَةَ وَالْكُدْرَةَ شَيْئًا
"We did not think that the yellowish or brownish discharge counted for anything."

Hence the brown or yellow discharge is not considered to be menstrual blood, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16797

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_sawm_siyaam_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_menstruation_and_postnatalbleeding

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