In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling on following the Imam whilst holding the Mushaf during the Taraweh prayer?

📝 The answer:

The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنَّ فِي الصَّلاَةِ لَشُغْلًا)
“Prayer demands one’s whole attention.”
Agreed upon on the authority of ‘Abdullah bin Mas’ud (رضي الله عنه), so one should not do such an action.

It was not carried out by the Salaf (رضوان الله عليهم) except if there was a need, such as if there was no one from amongst them who had memorised parts of the Qur’an, so someone would lead them whilst reading from the Mushaf, so there is no problem in this.

It has been established on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) that her slave Dhakwaan would lead her in prayer whilst reading from the Mushaf.

Also, if there is no one who has memorised the Qur’an present to correct the Imam, then someone can take the Mushaf in order to correct the Imam (if he makes a mistake).

As for taking the Mushaf so that one can follow along, then it is feared that this action makes a person fall in heresy.

(من عمل عملًا ليس عليه أمرنا فهو رد)
“He who does an act which we have not commanded, will have it rejected (by Allah).”

Think to yourself, if the whole row are holding the Mushaf following the Imam. If we say it is allowed for one of them then what is preventing the second, the third, the fourth or the whole row from doing so. If you see them all having raised the Mushafs and mobile phones, this is a joke. Perhaps you won’t rebuke them if they were a few in number, but if we make it permissible for one or two without there being a necessity then what is preventing the whole row from picking up their Mushafs?

This has become a heresy, the Sahaba (رضوان الله عليهم) did not do it. As has preceeded then it is only to be done if there is a need, to correct the Imam or if there is no one available to lead the people in prayer from the memorisers of the Qur’an as was practiced by ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) where she made her slave Dhakwaan lead her in prayer whilst reading from the Mushaf.

And some of them say that they will have Khushoo’ (presence of the heart and humility) if they follow using the Mushaf and that they will increase in Tadabbur (comprehension of the meanings).

Strive with yourself so that you can have Tadabbur without the Mushaf. Allah (تعالى) states:
{وَالَّذِينَ جاهَدُوا فِينا لَنَهْدِيَنَّهُمْ سُبُلَنا وَإِنَّ اللَّهَ لَمَعَ الْمُحْسِنِينَ} [الْعَنْكَبُوتِ: ٦٩]
“And those who strive for Us - We will surely guide them to Our Paths. And indeed, Allah is with the Muhsineen”

On the authority of Fadhaalah bin ‘Ubayd (رضي الله عنه) who said: I heard the Prophet (ﷺ) saying:
(وَالْمُجَاهِدُ مَنْ جَاهَدَ نَفْسَهُ فِي طَاعَةِ اللهِ)
“And the Mujahid is he who strives with himself regarding obedience to Allah”
Reported by Ahmad and Al-Tirmidhi.

If you were to read a Hizb (half a Juz) that they will be reading during Taraweh, If you were to read it well once or twice before the prayer, and you have Tadabbur of the Ayaat, when the time for the prayer comes and you are able to contemplate and comprehend the meanings of what is being recited. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16465

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📩 Question:

What is the last time one can give the Zakat al-Fitr?

📝 The answer:

The time of giving Zakat al-Fitr ends with the finishing of the Eid prayer. Thus, giving it after the prayer, or delaying it until after the prayer does not suffice. It is a worship which has a specific time for it.

The beginning time for it is when the sun of Ramadhan sets according to the correct scholarly view, in contrast to those who said it is from the beginning of Ramadhan, or from half way through Ramadhan, for they do not have any evidence in support of it.

The legislation permitted for it to be brought earlier by a day or two as has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Umar (رضي الله عنهما) in Bukhari, he said in the Hadith:
وَكَانُوا يُعْطُونَ قَبْلَ الفِطْرِ بِيَوْمٍ أَوْ يَوْمَيْنِ
“People used to give Sadaqat-ul-Fitr (even) a day or two before ‘Eid”
And in another narration of Imam Malik:
بثلاثة أيام
“Three days before”
Thus, anything more than this does not suffice.

This is from the wisdom behind the legislation, for they may be in a place where there are a lot of people and it is not possible to collect it all except by bringing it forward a day, two days or three, and anything more than that then we do not have any legislative evidence permitting that thus bringing it forward would not be sufficient as it is worship which has a specific time allocated to it.

As for the one who views the permissibility of bringing it forward to the start of the month of Ramadhan, then they are some of the Shafi’iyyah, and those who view the permissibility of bringing it forward until half of the month of Ramadhan has passed are the Hanbalis. Most of the scholars view the impermissibility of giving it earlier and this is the Madhab of Ahmad in that which is famously ascribed to him, as well as the view of Maalik and it is the correct view in this issue.

The Hanafis went to extremes and said that it is permissible to give it as early as the start of the year, and this is very very distant, and we ask Allah for uprightness.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16595

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📩 Question:

Should Zakat al-Fitr be given to the eight types of people (that Zakat on wealth is given to)?

📝 The answer:

Zakat al-Fitr is to be given to the poor and the needy only, as has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Abbaas who said:
فَرَضَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ زَكَاةَ الْفِطْرِ طُهْرَةً لِلصَّائِمِ مِنَ اللَّغْوِ وَالرَّفَثِ، وَطُعْمَةً لِلْمَسَاكِينِ، مَنْ أَدَّاهَا قَبْلَ الصَّلَاةِ، فَهِيَ زَكَاةٌ مَقْبُولَةٌ، وَمَنْ أَدَّاهَا بَعْدَ الصَّلَاةِ، فَهِيَ صَدَقَةٌ مِنَ الصَّدَقَاتِ
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and for the purpose of providing food for the needy. It is accepted as Zakah for the person who pays it before the Eid prayer and it is Sadaqah (i.e. voluntary charity) for the person who pays it after the Eid prayer.”

So it should be given to those in dire need from the poor and needy people. It should be given to the poor and the needy and none other, as has come in the Hadith.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16597

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📩 Question:

What is the response to the one who says: Zakat al-Fitr should be given according to the needs of the poor person, if the poor person is in need of money, then he should be given money, and if the poor person is in need of food, then they should be given food. And they say that this detail was mentioned by Imam Ahmad?

📝 The answer:

As for Imam Ahmad (رحمه الله) then he did not say that. Rather, that which is known from Imam Ahmad (رحمه الله) that he issued a verdict that it must not be given in any form except for food.

So the matter is as has preceded and that is that benefit is in abiding by the legislative rulings how Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) wants it to be done. So that which Allah has commanded us to do, we do that.

As for giving ourselves authority in the religion of Allah (عز وجل) then this is not appropriate. That which is correct is that it is not connected to that which we view to be of benefit, rather the benefit is to act in accordance with the legislation of Allah (جل وعلا).

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16601

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
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📩 Question:

What is the ruling of Zakat al-Fitr?

📝 The answer:

It is obligatory. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ibn ‘Umar (رضي الله عنهما) who said:
فَرَضَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ زَكَاةَ الفِطْرِ صَاعًا مِنْ تَمْرٍ، أَوْ صَاعًا مِنْ شَعِيرٍ عَلَى العَبْدِ وَالحُرِّ، وَالذَّكَرِ وَالأُنْثَى، وَالصَّغِيرِ وَالكَبِيرِ مِنَ المُسْلِمِينَ، وَأَمَرَ بِهَا أَنْ تُؤَدَّى قَبْلَ خُرُوجِ النَّاسِ إِلَى الصَّلاَةِ
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) enjoined the payment of one Saa' of dates or one Saa' of barley as Zakat-ul-fitr on every Muslim, slave or free, male or female, young or old, and he ordered that it be paid before the people went out to offer the 'Eid prayer.”

An-Nawawi said: "Ibn al-Mundhir mentioned there being a unanimous consensus upon this.” i.e., that it is from the obligations.

And from those who stated there being a unanimous consensus is Ishaaq bin Rahawey who said it is like a unanimous concensus amongst the people of knowledge.

Ibn Qudamah (رحمه الله عز وجل) said: “Zakat al-Fitr is obligatory upon ever Muslim, child or adult, male or female according to the majority of the people of knowledge. And it is obligatory upon the orphan, and their guardian must pay it on their behalf from their wealth. We do not know of anyone who opposed in this except for Muhammad bin al-Hassan who said: ‘There is no charity upon the wealth of a child’. And al-Hasan and al-Sha’bi said: ‘Zakat al-Fitr is upon the one who fasted from the slave or the free’.”

So the correct view is that it is obligatory upon every child or adult, male or female, even upon the slaves themselves. Zakat is not obligatory upon slaves however with regards to Zakat al-Fitr then it is obligatory upon their masters to give it on their behalf.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16615

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📩 Question:

Is Zakat al-Fitr to be given on behalf of the child who was born on the night of ‘Eid?

📝 The answer:

He was born during the time of this worship thus it is to be given on his behalf and he is included in the Hadith:
عن كل صغير وكبير
“On behalf of every child or adult”

So the correct view is that it is obligatory for it to be given on his behalf. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16617

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Is Zakat al-Fitr obligatory on behalf of the embryo?

📝 The answer:

Zakat al-Fitr is obligatory upon every young or old person, regardless of if they are from those who fasted or they didn’t fast. As for an embryo, then it does not take the ruling of being outside, thus it is not obligatory to pay it on behalf of an embryo as perhaps it may not even be born alive, so there is no Zakat upon the embryo. Rather the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(على كل صغيرٍ وكبير ذكرٍ وأنثى)
“Upon every young or old, male or female."

And Zakat al-Fitr has been called Zakat al-Fitr in the legislation. So the terminology that it is Zakat al-Nafs (Zakat on behalf of the soul) as is used by some of the people, Zakat al-Nafs, the chosen view is to leave this name for it has not come in the legislative texts. The Prophet (ﷺ) called it Zakat al-Fitr and Sadaqat al-Fitr, so the wording should not be changed. The people have began calling it Zakat al-Nafs and this is a mistake, they should say Zakat al-Fitr.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16643

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📩 Question:

The questioner says: What is the virtue mentioned for fasting the six days of Shawal?

📝 The answer:

Imam Muslim reported in his Saheeh on the authority of Abu Ayyub al-Ansaari (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستا من شوال فكأنما صام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."
It is an authentic Hadith, and it has come by way of other than Abu Ayyub (رضي الله عنه) in other than Saheeh Muslim.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/12132

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📩 Question:

A woman wants to fast the six days of Shawal so that its time doesn’t end, knowing that she will not be able to make up her missed fasts in Shawal?

📝 The answer:

It is difficult upon many women to combine between making up missed fasts and fasting the six days of Shawal, and this is something which is known, for perhaps she may have to make up seven days, or less, or more, and that is piled up on top of the six days of Shawal.

Menstruation also comes for six or seven days thus becoming very difficult upon her. Perhaps she may spend the whole month of Shawal in the state of fasting, thus it is permissible for her to delay making up her obligatory fasts as ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) would delay making up her missed fasts, and she would not make them up except in the month of Sha’ban as has come in the Saheehayn. Hence, there is no problem in fasting the six days first. Likewise, it is not an issue to fast the day of ‘Arafah and the day of ‘Aashoorah first, there is no problem for her in this.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16664

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#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If someone fasts three days each month and he fasts the six days of Shawal, does that suffice him from fasting the three days of the month, or does he fast three days with it making it nine days?

📝 The answer:

It suffices him from fasting the three days of each month as he fasted three days, and increased three days on top of that, thus he attains the reward of fasting the six days of Shawal and he attains the reward of fasting the three days of each month for he combined between the two affairs.

Similarly, the one who fasts on Mondays and Thursdays and so he fasts Mondays and Thursdays in the month of Shawal, then that suffices him from fasting the six days of Shawal. And all aid and assistance lies with Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16666

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#Fatwas_on_ supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the three days of each month and intend with it the six days of Shawal, or is the fasting of the six days of Shawal a separate, distinct act of worship?

📝 The answer:

The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال فكأنما صام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."

So whoever fasts the supererogatory fasts for Allahs sake in the month of Shawal and thus fasts six supererogatory fasts, then he attains the mentioned virtue regardless of if he fasts it on Mondays and Thursdays, or during the white days, or on other days.

That which is apparent is that it suffices and that he will attain the virtue. This is because the intent is to gain nearness to Allah in the month of Shawal by fasting six days, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16668

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#Fatwas_on_ supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
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📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the six days of Shawal and to intend with it the fasting for a Kafarah (expiation)?

📝 The answer:

Such a fast is not correct because the fasting for a Kafarah is obligatory thus it is impermissible to combine it with another intention. It is obligatory upon you to single it out with the intention of Kafarah.

Hence, it is not correct to fast the six days of Shawal and intend with it the fasting for a Kafarah, whereby you intend this one and that one.

(إنما الأعمال بالنيات وإنما لكل امرئ مانوى)
“Actions are to be judged only by intentions and a man will have only what he intended.”

If one wishes to fast the six days on Mondays and Thursdays then it suffices. If one intends to fast supererogatory fasts in the month of Shawal on Mondays and Thursdays and the three white days then it sufficies him from the six days of Shawal if the total amount reaches or exceeds six, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16670

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📩 Question:

A woman says: She was fasting the six days of Shawal and on one of the days she got up from sleep and she drank water. After drinking the water she heard the Iqama for the prayer, hence she came to know that she had drank after the time had entered. What is the ruling of her fast?

📝 The answer:

Her fast is correct as she drank whilst she thought that it is still night time whilst she had firm determination of fasting that day, thus her fast is correct and there is no problem upon her as she drank whilst being ignorant of the time entering.

It is like that which happened to ‘Adi bin Haatim when he was eating and drinking whilst he thought that the time is still the time where it's prescribed for him to eat, until the speech of Allah (تعالى) was revealed:
{ من الفجر}
“From the dawn”
Thus they came to know that the intent is the blackness of the night and the whiteness of the dawn.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16672

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#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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📩 Question:

Is it permissible to fast the six days outside of Shawal? If someone delayed it due to illness or travelling, or a woman was post-partum and so she missed all of Ramadhaan and spent all of Shawal making up missed fasts, is it sufficient to fast the six days in the month of Dhul Qa'dah?

📝 The answer:

This is a restricted worship to be done in Shawal only, so it is not sufficient except in Shawal. It is a restricted worship and a restricted practice. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال كان كصيام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."
Thus, if one misses Shawal then he misses out on this virtue.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16672

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#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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📩 Question:

If it is recommended to make up the habitual supererogatory fasts another day, does this include the one who misses ‘Aashooraa, ‘Arafah or the six days of Shawal?

📝 The answer:

These habitual restricted fasts have come restricted. The six days are restricted to Shawal thus the one who misses it (the month) misses fasting it as it is restricted to Shawal, however he should fast the supererogatory fasts from the remaining months as much as Allah guides him towards.

Similarly ‘Aashooraa and ‘Arafah are restricted supererogatory actions, and its virtue is restricted, however, there's no issue in him fasting supererogatory fasts. The one who misses the day, he misses the habitual fasting and he misses the virtue ascribed to that habitual day, hence if he makes it up on another day then its reward is not like that if he were to fast that exact day. He will be rewarded in Shaa Allah, there's nothing wrong with him fasting another day in place of it however its virtue is not like the virtue because that day is virtuous in and of itself, specific days which are virtuous for fasting to be done in them, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16678

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#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
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📩 Question:

Is it permissible for one to fast the six days of Shawal before making up the missed fasts which are upon him from Ramadhaan?

📝 The answer:

The Prophet (ﷺ) stated:
(من صام رمضان ثم أتبعه ستاً من شوال كان كصيام الدهر)
"Whoever fasts during the month of Ramadan and then follows it with six days of Shawwal will be (rewarded) as if he had fasted the entire year."

So to act in accordance with the apparent meaning of this Hadith is what should be done, and that is to begin with making up the missed fasts followed by the six days of Shawal.

However, it is not apparent from the context of the Hadith that the one who fasts the six days of Shawal first and then makes up the missed fasts which are upon him, that he will not attain the virtue, because he is considered to have fasted Ramadhan. The one who makes up missed fasts takes the ruling of the one who fasted it, so In Shaa Allah he will attain the virtue and Allah knows best.

However, that which is best is to begin with making up the missed fasts. Allah (عز وجل) stated:
(وما تقرب عبدي إلي بشيء أحب إلي مما افترضته عليه)
“And the most beloved thing with which My slave comes nearer to Me is what I have enjoined upon him”
So it is not appropriate for a Muslim to delay making up the missed fasts and to start with the supererogatory acts for this is in opposition to that which is best.

Some people of knowledge said: his speech: (ثم أتبعه) “and then follows it with” implies that the Hadith will not apply for a person unless he starts with making up the missed fasts first.

However, if we were to take a look at the meaning, then there is no doubt that the one who missed fasts due to a valid reason and then made up what was upon him from Ramadhaan then he takes the ruling of the one who fasted Ramadhaan, no one opposes us in this. The one who missed a fast due to travels or sickness, or for a woman the menses or post-partum, and then they made up the missed fasts which were upon them in the following months, then they take the ruling of the one who fasted it (the month of Ramadhaan).

Hence, that which is apparent is that they attain the reward as the meaning is the same, especially since it could be extremely difficult upon them such as for women, perhaps many fasts pile up on them such so that they cannot combine between the two virtues (six days and making up missed fasts), so perhaps they may need to fast the supererogatory fasts followed by making up the missed fasts.

And that which we advise with, if there is no difficulty upon her, is for her to make up the missed fasts first.

And whomsoever doesn’t fast the whole month of Ramadhaan due to a valid reason then without a doubt they begin with making up the missed fasts. How can one fast the supererogatory fasts and they haven’t fasting anything from Ramadhaan? And all Perfect Praise with Love and Veneration is exclusively for Allah.


Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16676

#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts
#Fatwas_on_fasting_six_days_of_shawal

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a woman using contraceptive pills which causes the menstruation to stop so that she can fast?

📝 The answer:

Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) created the woman upon this nature, and that is the exiting of menstrual blood from her every month generaly. For a woman to remain according to her nature is more correct for her body, and better for her.

The legislation has commanded her to not fast and make up those fasts which she missed. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) who said:
كنا نُؤمرُ بِقضاء الصيام ولا نُؤمرُ بقضاء الصلاة
“We were ordered to make up for the fast, but were not ordered to make up for the prayer.”
i.e. during menstruation.

So for her to remain upon her natural state is better for her, and using these pills may effect her health, thus, leaving it off is better. It may cause some women harm, and those women for whom it causes harm whilst she knows that that is the case, then it is impermissible for her. If it causes harm then for her it is impermissible. As for some women it may not cause harm due to it being used rarely on a monthly occasion, so perhaps it may not cause any harm or it may cause some slight pains only.

It is disliked for the one who it causes slight pain for, as for the one who faces extreme pain and harm then it is impermissible for them.

(لا ضرر ولا ضرار)
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.”
﴿وَلا تُلْقُوا بِأَيْدِيكُمْ إِلَى التَّهْلُكَةِ﴾
“Do not contribute to your destruction with your own hands”

As for the acceptance of her fast, if no blood leaves her then the fast is correct. If her menstrual blood has stopped and doesn’t exit her, and she fasts, then the fast is correct. However, from the angle of advice, then the woman is advised to leave this off and to remain upon her natural state and that is better for her.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16732

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_post_natal_bleeding

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Some people from the past due to ignorance got married in Ramadhaan and thus didn’t fast the whole month due to having intercourse with their spouse?

📝 The answer:

We seek refuge in Allah, this is a major sin, and the likes of this is not unknown amongst the Muslims. All the Muslims know that it is obligatory upon them to leave off food, drink and sexual intercourse. Hence, upon him is to seek repentance and to ask for forgiveness from this major sin.

If he believed that this was permissible for him due to ignorance, or due to him finding someone who issued him a verdict that this is permissible for the married individual as a concession from Allah, then this is extreme ignorance, however the affair is less serious and upon him is to make up the missed fasts.

If he was in doubt and he came across some people saying: ‘The married individual has a concession from fasting’ and so he didn’t fast, then this affair is less serious than the one before.

The one who takes sins lightly, then this is an extremely major sin and he is not able to make it up. As for the one who is in doubt, and he comes across those who issue him a religious verdict, thus believing this is permissible for him, then for such a person is to make up the missed fasts. As for the first person, then making up the fasts will not benefit him as he intended to transgress the boundaries.

The second person: was in doubt due to ignorance that due to his marriage he is not obligated to fast. This is possible of happening in some remote places faraway from knowledge and education, or amongst the non-Arabs, or the likes of this, so this second person must make up the missed fasts. As for the first person who intended whilst knowing that it is impermissible, then making it up will not benefit him, upon him is to seek repentance, to have remorse and to seek forgiveness, and upon him is to seek forgiveness from Allah in abundance.

Is there Kafarah (expiation) upon him for each day? i.e. for the one who is not ignorant of its impermissibility?
The answer: If he was not fasting from the start of the day to begin with, he did not intend to fast to begin with, then there are no Kafarahs upon him as he left off fasting to start with. He did not even intend to fast. As for if he broke his fast with sexual intercourse, then upon him is Kafarah for each day.

And without a doubt the Kafarah is transferred to feeding (the poor/needy) as fasting will be very difficult upon him. i.e. if we were to say: ‘for each day he must fast’, then he must fast sixty months. Thus, it is transferred to feeding, there is no doubt that it is transferred to feeding, and this is from the ease of the legislation upon him, and Allah knows best.


Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16728

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_expiations_for_those_who_break_their_fast

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: The Hadith:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم حتى نقول: إنه لا يفطر، ويفطر حتى نقول: إنه لا يصوم
The Prophet (ﷺ) used to fast until we would say: ‘He won't stop fasting’, and he would not fast until we would say: ‘He won't start fasting.'
What does this Hadith mean?

📝 The answer:

This Hadith is established in the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah and Anas, and it has come from other than them. The meaning of the Hadith is that the Prophet (ﷺ) would set forth in fasting some of his days, day after day, three, four, and more than that. Many days in a row until they said: ‘He won’t break his fast’ i.e. he will continue.

Then he (ﷺ) will not fast for many consecutive days until it was said: ‘he will not fast during this month’ and then he will fast after that.

And its meaning is that he (ﷺ) wouldn’t have specific days of the month that he would habitualy fast. And a proof for this is the Hadith of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) in Saheeh Muslim whereby she said:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم من كل شهر ثلاثة أيام
“The Prophet (ﷺ) would fast three days of every month.”
It was said to ‘A’ishah:
من أي أيام الشهر كان يصوم؟
“Which days of the month would he fast?
She said:
لم يكن يبالي من أي أيام الشهر صام، فمرة يقدم، ومرة يؤخر، ليس له أيام معلومة في صومه صلى الله عليه وسلم.
“He did not pay attention to which days of the month he fasted, sometimes he will do it at the start, and other times during the end, he did not have known days with regards to his (ﷺ) fasting.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16724

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If a woman becomes pure from her post-natal bleeding after twenty days, must she fast?

📝 The answer:

Yes, she is obliged to fast by unanimous consensus of the scholars. It is not obliged for those going through post-natal bleeding to remain forty days, this is incorrect. Some people think that she is obliged to stay for forty days, this is a great error, rather she must stay until the bleeding stops. If the post-natal bleeding stops after twenty days for argument sake, or thirty, or twenty five, then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she becomes permissible for her husband.

That which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the blood according to the consensus of the scholars, with regards to that which is less than forty days by unanimous consensus of the scholars. They differed on whether if the bleeding doesn’t stop after reaching forty days.

Some of them said: forty days is sufficient for her, so she must take her Ghusl and pray. The correct view in this matter is that she waits for the blood to stop. So that which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the bleeding, even if she reaches fifty days, she continues not praying nor fasting until it stops.

Thus, it is incumbent upon the husbands to inform their wives, and it is incumbent upon the women to inform each other with regards to this ruling. Many of the women, especially in the villages, are ignorant of this ruling. They wait forty days, this is an error. If the bleeding stops then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she does not wait for forty days. The difference of opinion between the scholars is only in the scenario if she passes forty days, is only forty days sufficient for her or must she continue waiting, this is the difference of opinion. And the correct view in this is that she must wait for the bleeding to stop as long as it (the blood) still has its known characteristics, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16753

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_nullifiers_of_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_purity_taharah
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_postnatal_bleeding

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