In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: A man is married to two women, and one of them suckled the daughter of the other wife. So does the brothers of the second wife become her maternal uncles?
📝 The answer:
Yes, they become her maternal uncles from suckling. Her mother’s blood brothers are her blood maternal uncles, and her mother’s brothers from suckling are her maternal uncles from suckling, and they have become Mahrams to her.
The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(وَيَحْرُمُ مِنْ اَلرَّضَاعَةِ مَا يَحْرُمُ مِنْ اَلنَّسَبِ)
“What is unlawful by reason of blood relationship is unlawful by reason of suckling relationship.”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15814
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_suckling_relations
-----------------------------------
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📩 Question:
The questioner says: A man is married to two women, and one of them suckled the daughter of the other wife. So does the brothers of the second wife become her maternal uncles?
📝 The answer:
Yes, they become her maternal uncles from suckling. Her mother’s blood brothers are her blood maternal uncles, and her mother’s brothers from suckling are her maternal uncles from suckling, and they have become Mahrams to her.
The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(وَيَحْرُمُ مِنْ اَلرَّضَاعَةِ مَا يَحْرُمُ مِنْ اَلنَّسَبِ)
“What is unlawful by reason of blood relationship is unlawful by reason of suckling relationship.”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15814
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_suckling_relations
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــؤال :-
رجلٌ متزوج بامرأتين فرضعت بنت إحداهن من الأخرى فهل صار إخوان المرأة الثانية أخوالا لها؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
نعم صاروا أخوالها من الرضاعة إخوة أمها من النسب أخوالها من النسب، وإخوة أمها من الرضاعة…
📩 الســــؤال :-
رجلٌ متزوج بامرأتين فرضعت بنت إحداهن من الأخرى فهل صار إخوان المرأة الثانية أخوالا لها؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
نعم صاروا أخوالها من الرضاعة إخوة أمها من النسب أخوالها من النسب، وإخوة أمها من الرضاعة…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: if a man makes an oath to divorce and he is married to four women, which of them does the divorce apply to?
📝 The answer:
If he intended the divorce then he is to be asked if he intended to divorce only one of them, otherwise the divorce is applied to all four of them. If he intended only one of them and he names her, then the divorce applies to the one who he named.
And if he intended one of them without naming them, and he intended the divorce and went against his oath, then the correct view is that she is determined by drawing lots. Whoevers name comes out in the lot is the one who is divorced.
As for if he intended emphasis and to prohibit something or to cast fear without intending the divorce, and he only intended to emphasize and prevent something, then upon him is to come with the atonement for breaking his oath, and the divorce doesn't take place because he doesn’t have the intention of divorcing his wife in his heart rather he only wants to emphasize that he will never do this thing ever, so for this there is an atonement for breaking the oath.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15828
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_divorce
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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📩 Question:
The questioner says: if a man makes an oath to divorce and he is married to four women, which of them does the divorce apply to?
📝 The answer:
If he intended the divorce then he is to be asked if he intended to divorce only one of them, otherwise the divorce is applied to all four of them. If he intended only one of them and he names her, then the divorce applies to the one who he named.
And if he intended one of them without naming them, and he intended the divorce and went against his oath, then the correct view is that she is determined by drawing lots. Whoevers name comes out in the lot is the one who is divorced.
As for if he intended emphasis and to prohibit something or to cast fear without intending the divorce, and he only intended to emphasize and prevent something, then upon him is to come with the atonement for breaking his oath, and the divorce doesn't take place because he doesn’t have the intention of divorcing his wife in his heart rather he only wants to emphasize that he will never do this thing ever, so for this there is an atonement for breaking the oath.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15828
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_divorce
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الأخ السائل: إذا حلف الرجل بالطلاق، وهو متزوج بأربع فعلى أيهن يقع الطلاق؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
إن كان نوى الطلاق فيُسأل: هل نوى إفراد واحدة فقط، وإلا وقع الطلاق عليهن…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الأخ السائل: إذا حلف الرجل بالطلاق، وهو متزوج بأربع فعلى أيهن يقع الطلاق؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
إن كان نوى الطلاق فيُسأل: هل نوى إفراد واحدة فقط، وإلا وقع الطلاق عليهن…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
Does a woman who has had her nikkah done but hasn’t consummated the marriage have an ‘Iddah (waiting) period if her husband passes away or divorces her?
📝 The answer:
If her husband passes away, then she must wait the waiting period of the ones whos husband passes away, due to the Hadith of Ma’qil bin Sinan al-Ashja’i (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet (ﷺ) judged with this. Ibn Mas’ud was asked about a woman whos husband has passed away whilst he hadn’t consummated the marriage, and he had’nt given her any Dowry, so he said:
عليها العدة ولها الميراث ولها مثل مهر نسائها لا وكس ولا شطط
“She must observe the 'Iddah and she is entitled to inherit. She should have a Mahr like that of women like her, no less and no more”.
And so Ma’qil bin Sinan said:
قضى النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم في بروع بنت واشق مثل الذي قضيت
"The Messenger of Allah passed a similar judgment among us concerning Birwa' bint Washiq."
Reported by Ahmad with an authentic chain of transmission.
As for if she was divorced, then a divorced woman who has not consummated the marriage does not have an ‘Iddah period, Allah (تعالى) stated:
{يَـٰٓأَيُّهَا ٱلَّذِينَ ءَامَنُوٓا۟ إِذَا نَكَحْتُمُ ٱلْمُؤْمِنَـٰتِ ثُمَّ طَلَّقْتُمُوهُنَّ مِن قَبْلِ أَن تَمَسُّوهُنَّ فَمَا لَكُمْ عَلَيْهِنَّ مِنْ عِدَّةٍۢ تَعْتَدُّونَهَا ۖ فَمَتِّعُوهُنَّ وَسَرِّحُوهُنَّ سَرَاحًۭا جَمِيلًۭا}
“O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no ‘Iddah have you to count in respect of them. So, give them a present, and set them free (i.e. divorce), in an honourable manner.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15852
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_waiting_period_iddah
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
Does a woman who has had her nikkah done but hasn’t consummated the marriage have an ‘Iddah (waiting) period if her husband passes away or divorces her?
📝 The answer:
If her husband passes away, then she must wait the waiting period of the ones whos husband passes away, due to the Hadith of Ma’qil bin Sinan al-Ashja’i (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet (ﷺ) judged with this. Ibn Mas’ud was asked about a woman whos husband has passed away whilst he hadn’t consummated the marriage, and he had’nt given her any Dowry, so he said:
عليها العدة ولها الميراث ولها مثل مهر نسائها لا وكس ولا شطط
“She must observe the 'Iddah and she is entitled to inherit. She should have a Mahr like that of women like her, no less and no more”.
And so Ma’qil bin Sinan said:
قضى النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم في بروع بنت واشق مثل الذي قضيت
"The Messenger of Allah passed a similar judgment among us concerning Birwa' bint Washiq."
Reported by Ahmad with an authentic chain of transmission.
As for if she was divorced, then a divorced woman who has not consummated the marriage does not have an ‘Iddah period, Allah (تعالى) stated:
{يَـٰٓأَيُّهَا ٱلَّذِينَ ءَامَنُوٓا۟ إِذَا نَكَحْتُمُ ٱلْمُؤْمِنَـٰتِ ثُمَّ طَلَّقْتُمُوهُنَّ مِن قَبْلِ أَن تَمَسُّوهُنَّ فَمَا لَكُمْ عَلَيْهِنَّ مِنْ عِدَّةٍۢ تَعْتَدُّونَهَا ۖ فَمَتِّعُوهُنَّ وَسَرِّحُوهُنَّ سَرَاحًۭا جَمِيلًۭا}
“O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no ‘Iddah have you to count in respect of them. So, give them a present, and set them free (i.e. divorce), in an honourable manner.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15852
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_waiting_period_iddah
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــؤال :-
المرأة المعقود عليها، ولم يُدخل بها، هل عليها عدة وفاة أو طلاق؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إذا مات عنها زوجها، فعليها عدة وفاة، لحديث معقل بن سنان الأشجعي رضي الله عنه، أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم…
📩 الســــــؤال :-
المرأة المعقود عليها، ولم يُدخل بها، هل عليها عدة وفاة أو طلاق؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إذا مات عنها زوجها، فعليها عدة وفاة، لحديث معقل بن سنان الأشجعي رضي الله عنه، أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of a woman cutting her head hair, and is the ruling general for older women and younger women?
📝 The answer:
It is not permissible for a woman to imitate men, so it is not permissible for her to cut her hair to such an extent that it is imitating men. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(لَعَنَ اللَّهُ الْمُتَشَبِّهِينَ مِنَ الرِّجَالِ بِالنِّسَاءِ والمتشبِّهات من النِّسَاء بِالرِّجَال)ِ
“Allah has cursed men who imitate women and women who imitate men.”
So it is not permissible to do it if it reaches the level where it becomes imitating the men.
If the cutting is a little amount whereby she still has long hair, then there is no problem with that, as long as she is not imitating certain hairstyles of the disbelieving women. It has come in Sahih Muslim on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) that after the death of the Prophet (ﷺ) the mothers of the believers cut their hair until it reached their ears. i.e. near the ear lobes.
Some of the scholars mentioned: they wanted to leave off beautifying themselves after him (ﷺ).
So cutting a small amount is fine, and she should stay away from intending to imitate the disbelieving women, or to make it a particular style which the disbelieving women do, regardless if she is old or young.
As for shaving, then it has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Abbaas in Abu Dawud:
(نَهَى رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ أَنْ تَحْلِقَ الْمَرْأَةُ رَأْسَهَا)
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) prohibited women from shaving their heads”
And this is an imitation of men so it falls under the curse, so it is impermissible.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15904
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_fitrah_natural_disposition_clothing_beautification
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of a woman cutting her head hair, and is the ruling general for older women and younger women?
📝 The answer:
It is not permissible for a woman to imitate men, so it is not permissible for her to cut her hair to such an extent that it is imitating men. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(لَعَنَ اللَّهُ الْمُتَشَبِّهِينَ مِنَ الرِّجَالِ بِالنِّسَاءِ والمتشبِّهات من النِّسَاء بِالرِّجَال)ِ
“Allah has cursed men who imitate women and women who imitate men.”
So it is not permissible to do it if it reaches the level where it becomes imitating the men.
If the cutting is a little amount whereby she still has long hair, then there is no problem with that, as long as she is not imitating certain hairstyles of the disbelieving women. It has come in Sahih Muslim on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) that after the death of the Prophet (ﷺ) the mothers of the believers cut their hair until it reached their ears. i.e. near the ear lobes.
Some of the scholars mentioned: they wanted to leave off beautifying themselves after him (ﷺ).
So cutting a small amount is fine, and she should stay away from intending to imitate the disbelieving women, or to make it a particular style which the disbelieving women do, regardless if she is old or young.
As for shaving, then it has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Abbaas in Abu Dawud:
(نَهَى رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ أَنْ تَحْلِقَ الْمَرْأَةُ رَأْسَهَا)
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) prohibited women from shaving their heads”
And this is an imitation of men so it falls under the curse, so it is impermissible.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15904
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_fitrah_natural_disposition_clothing_beautification
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم تقصير المرأة شعر رأسها، وهل الحكم عام في المرأة الكبيرة والصغيرة؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
لا يجوز للمرأة أن تتشبه بالرجال فلا يجوز لها أن تقصره إلى حد التشبه بالرجال…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم تقصير المرأة شعر رأسها، وهل الحكم عام في المرأة الكبيرة والصغيرة؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
لا يجوز للمرأة أن تتشبه بالرجال فلا يجوز لها أن تقصره إلى حد التشبه بالرجال…
Either in the house of the bride and this is the best, or in the house of the makeup artist, however as for the salons outside, then they should be abandoned as there is great evil in them.
And the beautification should be done upon goodness and generosity, an appropriate amount of money should be given upon goodness, and there is nothing wrong with this. As for extremism, extravagance and wastefulness then no.
And there is nothing wrong with a woman doing her hair, and beautifying the bride is better than beautifying someone else other than her.
And when ‘A’isha (رضي الله عنها) married our Prophet (ﷺ) she said that her mother called her and then there were women who were preparing and beautifying her. And similarly when the Prophet (ﷺ) married Sayiyyah bint Huyay she said that Umm Sulaym prepared her from the night, she prepared her and beautified her.
So there is no problem if there is some time is spent on preparing her and beautifying her, as for a large amount of money being wasted, and competition and arguments talking place, then it is not allowed to waste money on such. And similarly wasting a large amount of time. And from the strange affairs is that some women remain from the morning until ‘Asr or Maghreb only to be doing her hair. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15896
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_fitrah_natural_predisposition_clothing_and_beautification
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
And the beautification should be done upon goodness and generosity, an appropriate amount of money should be given upon goodness, and there is nothing wrong with this. As for extremism, extravagance and wastefulness then no.
And there is nothing wrong with a woman doing her hair, and beautifying the bride is better than beautifying someone else other than her.
And when ‘A’isha (رضي الله عنها) married our Prophet (ﷺ) she said that her mother called her and then there were women who were preparing and beautifying her. And similarly when the Prophet (ﷺ) married Sayiyyah bint Huyay she said that Umm Sulaym prepared her from the night, she prepared her and beautified her.
So there is no problem if there is some time is spent on preparing her and beautifying her, as for a large amount of money being wasted, and competition and arguments talking place, then it is not allowed to waste money on such. And similarly wasting a large amount of time. And from the strange affairs is that some women remain from the morning until ‘Asr or Maghreb only to be doing her hair. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15896
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_fitrah_natural_predisposition_clothing_and_beautification
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما نصيحتكم للنساء حول الذهاب إلى محلات الكوافير ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
حصل في هذه المحلات فساد كبير، ومخالفات شرعية، ففيها من التكشف والعراء الشيء الكثير، فتكشف المرأة عورتها…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما نصيحتكم للنساء حول الذهاب إلى محلات الكوافير ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
حصل في هذه المحلات فساد كبير، ومخالفات شرعية، ففيها من التكشف والعراء الشيء الكثير، فتكشف المرأة عورتها…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of wearing a Burqa’ and a Niqab (face veil) for the women, and some women excuse themselves from wearing the Jilbab due to the difficulty of wearing it and it being difficult for her to breathe?
📝 The answer:
The one who finds it difficult to see and is not able to see from behind a covering, or breathing is difficult for her as mentioned, then it is permissible for her to wear a Niqab and a Burqa’ and there is no sin upon her. However, nothing from her eye lids must be on display, nothing must be displayed except for something very little so that she can see through it with her eyes.
So her eyelids must not be showing, or parts of her nose, or something from her eyebrows or forehead, this is not permissible. That which can be shown is in accordance with what is necessary only.
And the one who can see from behind a cover then we advise her to not do away with the cover and to cover herself with a covering as this makes her more covered and further away from fitnah.
Having said that if she suffices with a Niqab which doesn’t display her beauty, then we cannot say that it is haram for her because the Prophet (ﷺ) prohibited the woman from wearing a Niqab whilst she is in the state of Ihram (for Hajj or ‘Umrah), and this denotes that in a state of not being in Ihram it is permissible for her, due to the statement of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ تَنْتَقِبُ الْمُحْرِمَةُ وَلاَ تَلْبَسُ الْقُفَّازَيْنِ)
"A woman in Ihram should wear neither a Niqab nor gloves."
However, the Niqab which they used to have would be covered and would not reveal any beauty, faults and any of the ‘Awrah. As for in our current times then the majority of the women show more than the eyes and they beautify them as well and this is Haram.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/7476
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_hijab_niqab_burqa_faceveil
-----------------------------------
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And in English:-
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📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of wearing a Burqa’ and a Niqab (face veil) for the women, and some women excuse themselves from wearing the Jilbab due to the difficulty of wearing it and it being difficult for her to breathe?
📝 The answer:
The one who finds it difficult to see and is not able to see from behind a covering, or breathing is difficult for her as mentioned, then it is permissible for her to wear a Niqab and a Burqa’ and there is no sin upon her. However, nothing from her eye lids must be on display, nothing must be displayed except for something very little so that she can see through it with her eyes.
So her eyelids must not be showing, or parts of her nose, or something from her eyebrows or forehead, this is not permissible. That which can be shown is in accordance with what is necessary only.
And the one who can see from behind a cover then we advise her to not do away with the cover and to cover herself with a covering as this makes her more covered and further away from fitnah.
Having said that if she suffices with a Niqab which doesn’t display her beauty, then we cannot say that it is haram for her because the Prophet (ﷺ) prohibited the woman from wearing a Niqab whilst she is in the state of Ihram (for Hajj or ‘Umrah), and this denotes that in a state of not being in Ihram it is permissible for her, due to the statement of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ تَنْتَقِبُ الْمُحْرِمَةُ وَلاَ تَلْبَسُ الْقُفَّازَيْنِ)
"A woman in Ihram should wear neither a Niqab nor gloves."
However, the Niqab which they used to have would be covered and would not reveal any beauty, faults and any of the ‘Awrah. As for in our current times then the majority of the women show more than the eyes and they beautify them as well and this is Haram.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/7476
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_hijab_niqab_burqa_faceveil
-----------------------------------
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And in English:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ماحكم لبس البرقع والنقاب للمرأة، وبعض النساء يتعذرن من صعوبة لبس الجلباب ويصعب تنفسها؟
📝 الإجـــــــابة :-
التي تجد ضعفاً في النظر ما تستطيع النظر من خلف الغطاء أو يصعب تنفسها كما…
📩 الســــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ماحكم لبس البرقع والنقاب للمرأة، وبعض النساء يتعذرن من صعوبة لبس الجلباب ويصعب تنفسها؟
📝 الإجـــــــابة :-
التي تجد ضعفاً في النظر ما تستطيع النظر من خلف الغطاء أو يصعب تنفسها كما…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of the one who marries a woman in a Non-Muslim country intending to stay with her for a few months and then divorcing her before returning to his country?
📝 The answer:
In other words, he marries her with the intention of divorcing after a time period. Marriage with the intention of divorce, such a marriage is impermissible for him. If they agree upon it, i.e. that the marriage is for a certain time period, then this has become like Mut’ah Nikkah (Temporary Marriage). And it is not allowed to restrict a marriage to a certain time period, Mut’ah Nikkah is haram according to the consensus of the scholars.
As for if this matter is in his heart and he did not let the woman know of it, then this is cheating the woman and deception, as the woman got married wanting to stay with her husband.
And perhaps children may be born, or perhaps she may desire to have children, and he deceives and cheats her by marrying her and then staying for a few days or months before divorcing her. This is impermissible for him. However, if this was to take place then the marriage is correct whilst him being sinful due to his intention. If the marriage takes place then the marriage is correct whilst him being sinful for his intention and sinful for his deception.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15959
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage
#Fatwas_on_divorce
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of the one who marries a woman in a Non-Muslim country intending to stay with her for a few months and then divorcing her before returning to his country?
📝 The answer:
In other words, he marries her with the intention of divorcing after a time period. Marriage with the intention of divorce, such a marriage is impermissible for him. If they agree upon it, i.e. that the marriage is for a certain time period, then this has become like Mut’ah Nikkah (Temporary Marriage). And it is not allowed to restrict a marriage to a certain time period, Mut’ah Nikkah is haram according to the consensus of the scholars.
As for if this matter is in his heart and he did not let the woman know of it, then this is cheating the woman and deception, as the woman got married wanting to stay with her husband.
And perhaps children may be born, or perhaps she may desire to have children, and he deceives and cheats her by marrying her and then staying for a few days or months before divorcing her. This is impermissible for him. However, if this was to take place then the marriage is correct whilst him being sinful due to his intention. If the marriage takes place then the marriage is correct whilst him being sinful for his intention and sinful for his deception.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15959
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage
#Fatwas_on_divorce
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم من تزوج امرأة في بلاد الكفار، ينوي الإقامة معها أشهرًا، ثم يطلقها، ثم يرجع إلى بلاده؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
معناه: أنه تزوجها بنية الطلاق بعد فترة، زواج…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم من تزوج امرأة في بلاد الكفار، ينوي الإقامة معها أشهرًا، ثم يطلقها، ثم يرجع إلى بلاده؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
معناه: أنه تزوجها بنية الطلاق بعد فترة، زواج…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of shaking the hand of an old woman who is sixty years old?
📝 The answer:
It is not allowed to shake hands with women (non mahrams) even if she may be old in age. For the elderly it is permissible for them to remove their outer garment which covers their face, and likewise it is allowed for them to leave off covering the hands. As for shaking hands then this has not been permitted for them.
And the Prophet ﷺ said:
(لأن يطعن الرجل برأسه بمخيط من حديد خير له من أن يمس امرأة لاتحل له)
“For one of you to be stabbed in the head with an iron needle is better for him than that he should touch a woman who is not permissible for him.”
Reported by Al-Tabarani on the authority of Ma’qil bin Yasaar and its chain of transmission is authentic.
And A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) said:
مَا مَسَّتْ يَدُ النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يَدَ امْرَأَةٍ قَطُّ
“The hand of the Prophet ﷺ never touched the hand of a woman”
As has come in the Saheehayn on the authority of A’ishah (رضي الله عنها).
And also in the Saheehayn on the authority of Abu Hurayrah (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet ﷺ said:
(واليدان تزنيان وزناهما البطش)
“And the Zina of the hands is the lustful grip”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16026
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of shaking the hand of an old woman who is sixty years old?
📝 The answer:
It is not allowed to shake hands with women (non mahrams) even if she may be old in age. For the elderly it is permissible for them to remove their outer garment which covers their face, and likewise it is allowed for them to leave off covering the hands. As for shaking hands then this has not been permitted for them.
And the Prophet ﷺ said:
(لأن يطعن الرجل برأسه بمخيط من حديد خير له من أن يمس امرأة لاتحل له)
“For one of you to be stabbed in the head with an iron needle is better for him than that he should touch a woman who is not permissible for him.”
Reported by Al-Tabarani on the authority of Ma’qil bin Yasaar and its chain of transmission is authentic.
And A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) said:
مَا مَسَّتْ يَدُ النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يَدَ امْرَأَةٍ قَطُّ
“The hand of the Prophet ﷺ never touched the hand of a woman”
As has come in the Saheehayn on the authority of A’ishah (رضي الله عنها).
And also in the Saheehayn on the authority of Abu Hurayrah (رضي الله عنه) that the Prophet ﷺ said:
(واليدان تزنيان وزناهما البطش)
“And the Zina of the hands is the lustful grip”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16026
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم مصافحة العجوز التي عمرها ستون سنة ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
لا تصافح النساء ولو كانت كبيرة السن، كبيرة السن أذن لها في وضع الجلباب الذي يغطي وجهها وكذلك في ترك تغطية…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم مصافحة العجوز التي عمرها ستون سنة ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
لا تصافح النساء ولو كانت كبيرة السن، كبيرة السن أذن لها في وضع الجلباب الذي يغطي وجهها وكذلك في ترك تغطية…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: A man did Zina (illegal sexual intercourse) with his fiance before the Nikkah (marital contract), and so she became pregnant by him, and they did their Nikkah whilst she was pregnant so they joined the pregnancy with it, so what is the ruling of this contract whilst she is pregnant, and is it permissible to join the pregnancy with it?
📝 The answer:
If it is proven with certainty that the pregnancy is from him then there is no problem in making this contract between them and this affair of theirs should be concealed. However, it is incumbent that they be rebuked and reprimanded so that they will be deterred from this action. And in any case the contract is correct according to the correct view of the people of knowledge though there has arisen a differing in this issue. The correct view is that the contract is correct and that the pregnancy is ascribed to him and that it is permissible for him to have marital relations with her if they confirm with certainty that the pregnancy is from him.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15997
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage_nikah
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner says: A man did Zina (illegal sexual intercourse) with his fiance before the Nikkah (marital contract), and so she became pregnant by him, and they did their Nikkah whilst she was pregnant so they joined the pregnancy with it, so what is the ruling of this contract whilst she is pregnant, and is it permissible to join the pregnancy with it?
📝 The answer:
If it is proven with certainty that the pregnancy is from him then there is no problem in making this contract between them and this affair of theirs should be concealed. However, it is incumbent that they be rebuked and reprimanded so that they will be deterred from this action. And in any case the contract is correct according to the correct view of the people of knowledge though there has arisen a differing in this issue. The correct view is that the contract is correct and that the pregnancy is ascribed to him and that it is permissible for him to have marital relations with her if they confirm with certainty that the pregnancy is from him.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15997
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage_nikah
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: رجل زنى بخطيبته قبل العقد، فحملت منه فعقدوا له بها وهي حامل وألحقوا به هذا الحمل، فما حكم العقد وهي حامل، وهل يجوز إلحاق الحمل به؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إذا حصل اليقين أن…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: رجل زنى بخطيبته قبل العقد، فحملت منه فعقدوا له بها وهي حامل وألحقوا به هذا الحمل، فما حكم العقد وهي حامل، وهل يجوز إلحاق الحمل به؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إذا حصل اليقين أن…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of a woman working?
📝 The answer:
It is permissible for a woman to work a job where she isn’t present in front of men, and where she isn’t exposed to Haram, such as displaying her beauty and her face, and free mixing with men.
She should work a job which is specific for women such as being a doctor in the female department whereby she doesn’t mix with men, or in a school teaching women without mixing with men, or she does sewing for women only and the likes of this. However, her working whilst committing Haram by mixing with men, or jobs which cause her to expose parts of her body which is obligatory for her to cover, then this is impermissible.
﴿وَقَرْنَ فِي بُيُوتِكُنَّ وَلا تَبَرَّجْنَ تَبَرُّجَ الْجَاهِلِيَّةِ الأولَى﴾
“And stay in your houses, and do not display yourselves like that of the times of ignorance”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16206
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner says: What is the ruling of a woman working?
📝 The answer:
It is permissible for a woman to work a job where she isn’t present in front of men, and where she isn’t exposed to Haram, such as displaying her beauty and her face, and free mixing with men.
She should work a job which is specific for women such as being a doctor in the female department whereby she doesn’t mix with men, or in a school teaching women without mixing with men, or she does sewing for women only and the likes of this. However, her working whilst committing Haram by mixing with men, or jobs which cause her to expose parts of her body which is obligatory for her to cover, then this is impermissible.
﴿وَقَرْنَ فِي بُيُوتِكُنَّ وَلا تَبَرَّجْنَ تَبَرُّجَ الْجَاهِلِيَّةِ الأولَى﴾
“And stay in your houses, and do not display yourselves like that of the times of ignorance”
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16206
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الأخ السائل: ما حكم عمل المرأة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
يجوز للمرأة أن تعمل في عمل ليس فيه ظهور أمام الرجال، وليس فيه ما يعرضها للمحرمات، من التبرج والسفور، ومخالطة الرجال،…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الأخ السائل: ما حكم عمل المرأة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
يجوز للمرأة أن تعمل في عمل ليس فيه ظهور أمام الرجال، وليس فيه ما يعرضها للمحرمات، من التبرج والسفور، ومخالطة الرجال،…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a man shaking a womans hand with the excuse that she is his work collegue?
📝 The answer:
This action is from the Haram affairs, shaking hands with women is from the Haram affairs, i.e. shaking the hand of a foreign (non-mahram) woman.
Al-Tabrani narrated from Ma’qil bin Yassaar (رضي الله عنه) who said that the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said:
(لأن يطعن أحدكم على رأسه بمخيط من حديد، خير له من أن يمس امرأة لا تحل له)
“For one of you to be stabbed in the head with an iron needle is better for him than that he should touch a woman who is not permissible for him.”
And the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إني لا أصافح النساء)
"I do not shake hands with women.”
And when the Prophet (ﷺ) took the oath of allegiance from the women, he would take it by speech, and he is the Messenger of Allah, he is in the place of a father for this nation, and with that he (ﷺ) did not shake the hands of the women, he would take the oath of allegiance from them by way of speech. He would say:
(انْطَلِقْنَ فَقَدْ بَايَعْتُكُنَّ بالكلام)
“Go, for you have given your pledge by way of speech.”
He would take the pledge of hearing and obeying from them by way of speech and he wouldn’t shake the women’s hands, and he (ﷺ) is a father for this nation.
He (ﷺ) said:
(إنما أنا لكم بمنزلة الوالد)
“I am like a father to you.”
And with that he did not shake the women’s hands, thus shaking the hands of non-mahram women is Haram, and it is obligatory to distance oneself from this.
‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) said:
وَاللَّهِ، مَا مَسَّتْ يَدُ رَسُولِ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ يَدَ امْرَأَةٍ قَطُّ، غَيْرَ أَنَّهُ يُبَايِعُهُنَّ بِالْكَلَامِ
“By Allah, the hand of the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) never touched the hand of a woman ever, rather when he would take the oath of allegiance from them he would do so by speech”
Agreed upon.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16293
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a man shaking a womans hand with the excuse that she is his work collegue?
📝 The answer:
This action is from the Haram affairs, shaking hands with women is from the Haram affairs, i.e. shaking the hand of a foreign (non-mahram) woman.
Al-Tabrani narrated from Ma’qil bin Yassaar (رضي الله عنه) who said that the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said:
(لأن يطعن أحدكم على رأسه بمخيط من حديد، خير له من أن يمس امرأة لا تحل له)
“For one of you to be stabbed in the head with an iron needle is better for him than that he should touch a woman who is not permissible for him.”
And the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إني لا أصافح النساء)
"I do not shake hands with women.”
And when the Prophet (ﷺ) took the oath of allegiance from the women, he would take it by speech, and he is the Messenger of Allah, he is in the place of a father for this nation, and with that he (ﷺ) did not shake the hands of the women, he would take the oath of allegiance from them by way of speech. He would say:
(انْطَلِقْنَ فَقَدْ بَايَعْتُكُنَّ بالكلام)
“Go, for you have given your pledge by way of speech.”
He would take the pledge of hearing and obeying from them by way of speech and he wouldn’t shake the women’s hands, and he (ﷺ) is a father for this nation.
He (ﷺ) said:
(إنما أنا لكم بمنزلة الوالد)
“I am like a father to you.”
And with that he did not shake the women’s hands, thus shaking the hands of non-mahram women is Haram, and it is obligatory to distance oneself from this.
‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) said:
وَاللَّهِ، مَا مَسَّتْ يَدُ رَسُولِ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ يَدَ امْرَأَةٍ قَطُّ، غَيْرَ أَنَّهُ يُبَايِعُهُنَّ بِالْكَلَامِ
“By Allah, the hand of the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) never touched the hand of a woman ever, rather when he would take the oath of allegiance from them he would do so by speech”
Agreed upon.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16293
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
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And in English:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم مصافحة الرجل للمرأة؟ بحجة أنها زميلته في العمل؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا العمل من المحرمات، فمصافحة النساء من الأمور المحرمة، أعني مصافحة المرأة الاجنبية.…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم مصافحة الرجل للمرأة؟ بحجة أنها زميلته في العمل؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا العمل من المحرمات، فمصافحة النساء من الأمور المحرمة، أعني مصافحة المرأة الاجنبية.…
As the person said: 'Looking followed with smiling and greeting… speaking followed by setting a date and then meeting.'
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.
It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”
And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.
So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.
It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.
And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.
It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”
And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.
So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.
It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.
And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الاخ السائل: ما حكم الدراسة الاختلاطية بين الرجال والنساء في قاعة واحدة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا لا يجوز، فإنه سبب للفتنة، قال الله تعالى: ﴿قُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنِينَ يَغُضُّوا…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الاخ السائل: ما حكم الدراسة الاختلاطية بين الرجال والنساء في قاعة واحدة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا لا يجوز، فإنه سبب للفتنة، قال الله تعالى: ﴿قُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنِينَ يَغُضُّوا…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
What is the last time one can give the Zakat al-Fitr?
📝 The answer:
The time of giving Zakat al-Fitr ends with the finishing of the Eid prayer. Thus, giving it after the prayer, or delaying it until after the prayer does not suffice. It is a worship which has a specific time for it.
The beginning time for it is when the sun of Ramadhan sets according to the correct scholarly view, in contrast to those who said it is from the beginning of Ramadhan, or from half way through Ramadhan, for they do not have any evidence in support of it.
The legislation permitted for it to be brought earlier by a day or two as has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Umar (رضي الله عنهما) in Bukhari, he said in the Hadith:
وَكَانُوا يُعْطُونَ قَبْلَ الفِطْرِ بِيَوْمٍ أَوْ يَوْمَيْنِ
“People used to give Sadaqat-ul-Fitr (even) a day or two before ‘Eid”
And in another narration of Imam Malik:
بثلاثة أيام
“Three days before”
Thus, anything more than this does not suffice.
This is from the wisdom behind the legislation, for they may be in a place where there are a lot of people and it is not possible to collect it all except by bringing it forward a day, two days or three, and anything more than that then we do not have any legislative evidence permitting that thus bringing it forward would not be sufficient as it is worship which has a specific time allocated to it.
As for the one who views the permissibility of bringing it forward to the start of the month of Ramadhan, then they are some of the Shafi’iyyah, and those who view the permissibility of bringing it forward until half of the month of Ramadhan has passed are the Hanbalis. Most of the scholars view the impermissibility of giving it earlier and this is the Madhab of Ahmad in that which is famously ascribed to him, as well as the view of Maalik and it is the correct view in this issue.
The Hanafis went to extremes and said that it is permissible to give it as early as the start of the year, and this is very very distant, and we ask Allah for uprightness.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16595
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
What is the last time one can give the Zakat al-Fitr?
📝 The answer:
The time of giving Zakat al-Fitr ends with the finishing of the Eid prayer. Thus, giving it after the prayer, or delaying it until after the prayer does not suffice. It is a worship which has a specific time for it.
The beginning time for it is when the sun of Ramadhan sets according to the correct scholarly view, in contrast to those who said it is from the beginning of Ramadhan, or from half way through Ramadhan, for they do not have any evidence in support of it.
The legislation permitted for it to be brought earlier by a day or two as has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Umar (رضي الله عنهما) in Bukhari, he said in the Hadith:
وَكَانُوا يُعْطُونَ قَبْلَ الفِطْرِ بِيَوْمٍ أَوْ يَوْمَيْنِ
“People used to give Sadaqat-ul-Fitr (even) a day or two before ‘Eid”
And in another narration of Imam Malik:
بثلاثة أيام
“Three days before”
Thus, anything more than this does not suffice.
This is from the wisdom behind the legislation, for they may be in a place where there are a lot of people and it is not possible to collect it all except by bringing it forward a day, two days or three, and anything more than that then we do not have any legislative evidence permitting that thus bringing it forward would not be sufficient as it is worship which has a specific time allocated to it.
As for the one who views the permissibility of bringing it forward to the start of the month of Ramadhan, then they are some of the Shafi’iyyah, and those who view the permissibility of bringing it forward until half of the month of Ramadhan has passed are the Hanbalis. Most of the scholars view the impermissibility of giving it earlier and this is the Madhab of Ahmad in that which is famously ascribed to him, as well as the view of Maalik and it is the correct view in this issue.
The Hanafis went to extremes and said that it is permissible to give it as early as the start of the year, and this is very very distant, and we ask Allah for uprightness.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16595
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
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And in English:-
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فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســـــــــؤال :-
ما هو آخر وقت لزكاة الفطر؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــــــابة :-
ينتهي وقت زكاة الفطر بانتهاء صلاة العيد، فإخراجها بعد الصلاة، أو تأخيرها إلى بعد الصلاة لا تجزئ، فهي عبادة مؤقتة، وأول وقتها غروب شمس رمضان…
📩 الســـــــــؤال :-
ما هو آخر وقت لزكاة الفطر؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــــــابة :-
ينتهي وقت زكاة الفطر بانتهاء صلاة العيد، فإخراجها بعد الصلاة، أو تأخيرها إلى بعد الصلاة لا تجزئ، فهي عبادة مؤقتة، وأول وقتها غروب شمس رمضان…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a woman using contraceptive pills which causes the menstruation to stop so that she can fast?
📝 The answer:
Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) created the woman upon this nature, and that is the exiting of menstrual blood from her every month generaly. For a woman to remain according to her nature is more correct for her body, and better for her.
The legislation has commanded her to not fast and make up those fasts which she missed. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) who said:
كنا نُؤمرُ بِقضاء الصيام ولا نُؤمرُ بقضاء الصلاة
“We were ordered to make up for the fast, but were not ordered to make up for the prayer.”
i.e. during menstruation.
So for her to remain upon her natural state is better for her, and using these pills may effect her health, thus, leaving it off is better. It may cause some women harm, and those women for whom it causes harm whilst she knows that that is the case, then it is impermissible for her. If it causes harm then for her it is impermissible. As for some women it may not cause harm due to it being used rarely on a monthly occasion, so perhaps it may not cause any harm or it may cause some slight pains only.
It is disliked for the one who it causes slight pain for, as for the one who faces extreme pain and harm then it is impermissible for them.
(لا ضرر ولا ضرار)
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.”
﴿وَلا تُلْقُوا بِأَيْدِيكُمْ إِلَى التَّهْلُكَةِ﴾
“Do not contribute to your destruction with your own hands”
As for the acceptance of her fast, if no blood leaves her then the fast is correct. If her menstrual blood has stopped and doesn’t exit her, and she fasts, then the fast is correct. However, from the angle of advice, then the woman is advised to leave this off and to remain upon her natural state and that is better for her.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16732
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_post_natal_bleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a woman using contraceptive pills which causes the menstruation to stop so that she can fast?
📝 The answer:
Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) created the woman upon this nature, and that is the exiting of menstrual blood from her every month generaly. For a woman to remain according to her nature is more correct for her body, and better for her.
The legislation has commanded her to not fast and make up those fasts which she missed. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) who said:
كنا نُؤمرُ بِقضاء الصيام ولا نُؤمرُ بقضاء الصلاة
“We were ordered to make up for the fast, but were not ordered to make up for the prayer.”
i.e. during menstruation.
So for her to remain upon her natural state is better for her, and using these pills may effect her health, thus, leaving it off is better. It may cause some women harm, and those women for whom it causes harm whilst she knows that that is the case, then it is impermissible for her. If it causes harm then for her it is impermissible. As for some women it may not cause harm due to it being used rarely on a monthly occasion, so perhaps it may not cause any harm or it may cause some slight pains only.
It is disliked for the one who it causes slight pain for, as for the one who faces extreme pain and harm then it is impermissible for them.
(لا ضرر ولا ضرار)
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.”
﴿وَلا تُلْقُوا بِأَيْدِيكُمْ إِلَى التَّهْلُكَةِ﴾
“Do not contribute to your destruction with your own hands”
As for the acceptance of her fast, if no blood leaves her then the fast is correct. If her menstrual blood has stopped and doesn’t exit her, and she fasts, then the fast is correct. However, from the angle of advice, then the woman is advised to leave this off and to remain upon her natural state and that is better for her.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16732
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_post_natal_bleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم استعمال المرأة للحبوب التي تقطع دم الحيض من أجل أن تصوم؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
الله سبحانه وتعالى خلق المرأة على هذه الطبيعة، وهو خروج الحيض منها في كل…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم استعمال المرأة للحبوب التي تقطع دم الحيض من أجل أن تصوم؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
الله سبحانه وتعالى خلق المرأة على هذه الطبيعة، وهو خروج الحيض منها في كل…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: If a woman becomes pure from her post-natal bleeding after twenty days, must she fast?
📝 The answer:
Yes, she is obliged to fast by unanimous consensus of the scholars. It is not obliged for those going through post-natal bleeding to remain forty days, this is incorrect. Some people think that she is obliged to stay for forty days, this is a great error, rather she must stay until the bleeding stops. If the post-natal bleeding stops after twenty days for argument sake, or thirty, or twenty five, then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she becomes permissible for her husband.
That which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the blood according to the consensus of the scholars, with regards to that which is less than forty days by unanimous consensus of the scholars. They differed on whether if the bleeding doesn’t stop after reaching forty days.
Some of them said: forty days is sufficient for her, so she must take her Ghusl and pray. The correct view in this matter is that she waits for the blood to stop. So that which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the bleeding, even if she reaches fifty days, she continues not praying nor fasting until it stops.
Thus, it is incumbent upon the husbands to inform their wives, and it is incumbent upon the women to inform each other with regards to this ruling. Many of the women, especially in the villages, are ignorant of this ruling. They wait forty days, this is an error. If the bleeding stops then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she does not wait for forty days. The difference of opinion between the scholars is only in the scenario if she passes forty days, is only forty days sufficient for her or must she continue waiting, this is the difference of opinion. And the correct view in this is that she must wait for the bleeding to stop as long as it (the blood) still has its known characteristics, and Allah knows best.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16753
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_nullifiers_of_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_purity_taharah
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_postnatal_bleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: If a woman becomes pure from her post-natal bleeding after twenty days, must she fast?
📝 The answer:
Yes, she is obliged to fast by unanimous consensus of the scholars. It is not obliged for those going through post-natal bleeding to remain forty days, this is incorrect. Some people think that she is obliged to stay for forty days, this is a great error, rather she must stay until the bleeding stops. If the post-natal bleeding stops after twenty days for argument sake, or thirty, or twenty five, then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she becomes permissible for her husband.
That which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the blood according to the consensus of the scholars, with regards to that which is less than forty days by unanimous consensus of the scholars. They differed on whether if the bleeding doesn’t stop after reaching forty days.
Some of them said: forty days is sufficient for her, so she must take her Ghusl and pray. The correct view in this matter is that she waits for the blood to stop. So that which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the bleeding, even if she reaches fifty days, she continues not praying nor fasting until it stops.
Thus, it is incumbent upon the husbands to inform their wives, and it is incumbent upon the women to inform each other with regards to this ruling. Many of the women, especially in the villages, are ignorant of this ruling. They wait forty days, this is an error. If the bleeding stops then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she does not wait for forty days. The difference of opinion between the scholars is only in the scenario if she passes forty days, is only forty days sufficient for her or must she continue waiting, this is the difference of opinion. And the correct view in this is that she must wait for the bleeding to stop as long as it (the blood) still has its known characteristics, and Allah knows best.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16753
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_nullifiers_of_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_purity_taharah
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_postnatal_bleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: إذا طهرت النفساء بعد عشرين يومًا من نفاسها هل يلزمها الصوم؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
نعم يلزمها بإجماع العلماء، لا يلزم النفساء أن تبقى أربعين يومًا، هذا خطأ،…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: إذا طهرت النفساء بعد عشرين يومًا من نفاسها هل يلزمها الصوم؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
نعم يلزمها بإجماع العلماء، لا يلزم النفساء أن تبقى أربعين يومًا، هذا خطأ،…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
A man says: His wife is fatigued from pregnancy, and her fatigue leads to extreme frailness in the bones which leads to lack of movement from her, is it permissible for her to use some methods of contraception?
📝 The answer:
If the fatigue that she goes through is excessive according to the intelligent proficient doctors, then there is no issue in preventing from the angle of removing the greater harm by taking the lesser of the two evils. It is permissible to remove the greater of the two evils, rather a person is commanded with this due to the speech of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ ضَرَرَ وَلاَ ضِرَارَ)
"There should neither be harming (of others without cause), nor reciprocating harm (between two parties)."
And before that the speech of Allah (سبحانه وتعالى):
﴿يُرِيدُ ٱللَّهُ بِكُمُ ٱلْيُسْرَ وَلَا يُرِيدُ بِكُمُ ٱلْعُسْرَ﴾
“Allah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you.”
And the speech of Allah (تعالى):
﴿وَمَا جَعَلَ عَلَيْكُمْ فِى ٱلدِّينِ مِنْ حَرَجٍۢ ﴾
“And He has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”.
However, it is incumbent to investigate the speech of the doctors, and all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Likewise, one must take the type of contraception which has the least harm, so she must not go and take those methods of contraception which lead to a greater harm than she is already facing.
As for using contraception without a need then it is Haram if it causes harm to the woman, and disliked if it doesn’t cause her harm, because it leads to harming her and preventing offspring which the legislation has commanded with and encouraged.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16782
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
A man says: His wife is fatigued from pregnancy, and her fatigue leads to extreme frailness in the bones which leads to lack of movement from her, is it permissible for her to use some methods of contraception?
📝 The answer:
If the fatigue that she goes through is excessive according to the intelligent proficient doctors, then there is no issue in preventing from the angle of removing the greater harm by taking the lesser of the two evils. It is permissible to remove the greater of the two evils, rather a person is commanded with this due to the speech of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ ضَرَرَ وَلاَ ضِرَارَ)
"There should neither be harming (of others without cause), nor reciprocating harm (between two parties)."
And before that the speech of Allah (سبحانه وتعالى):
﴿يُرِيدُ ٱللَّهُ بِكُمُ ٱلْيُسْرَ وَلَا يُرِيدُ بِكُمُ ٱلْعُسْرَ﴾
“Allah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you.”
And the speech of Allah (تعالى):
﴿وَمَا جَعَلَ عَلَيْكُمْ فِى ٱلدِّينِ مِنْ حَرَجٍۢ ﴾
“And He has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”.
However, it is incumbent to investigate the speech of the doctors, and all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Likewise, one must take the type of contraception which has the least harm, so she must not go and take those methods of contraception which lead to a greater harm than she is already facing.
As for using contraception without a need then it is Haram if it causes harm to the woman, and disliked if it doesn’t cause her harm, because it leads to harming her and preventing offspring which the legislation has commanded with and encouraged.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16782
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــؤال :-
رجل يقول: أهله تتعب من الحمل، ويؤدي تعبها إلى هشاشة في العظام بشكلٍ كبير مما يؤدي إلى قلةِ حركتها، فهل له أن يستخدم بعض موانع الحمل؟
📝 الإجــــــابة :-
إن كانت الأتعاب التي تحصل عليها شديدة…
📩 الســــــــــؤال :-
رجل يقول: أهله تتعب من الحمل، ويؤدي تعبها إلى هشاشة في العظام بشكلٍ كبير مما يؤدي إلى قلةِ حركتها، فهل له أن يستخدم بعض موانع الحمل؟
📝 الإجــــــابة :-
إن كانت الأتعاب التي تحصل عليها شديدة…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of Mut’ah Nikaah?
📝 The answer:
Mut’ah Nikaah means for a man to marry a woman for an appointed time period, so he stipulates at the time of the contract that the time period of the marital contract is one month, or two months, or for a few days, and this type of marriage is Haram, impermissible and it is a null marital contract.
The Prophet (ﷺ) gave concession for this type of Nikaah at the beginning, then he prohibited it. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنِّي قَدْ كُنْتُ أَذِنْتُ لَكُمْ فِي الاِسْتِمْتَاعِ مِنَ النِّسَاءِ وَإِنَّ اللَّهَ قَدْ حَرَّمَ ذَلِكَ إِلَى يَوْمِ الْقِيَامَةِ فَمَنْ كَانَ عِنْدَهُ مِنْهُنَّ شَىْءٌ فَلْيُخَلِّ سَبِيلَهُ)
“I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off”
So this Nikaah became impermissible and it is considered to be null. If a man agrees with a woman to marry for a specified time period then it is a marital contract which is null, and him consummating the marriage is considered as Zina (illegal sexual intercourse).
Mut’ah Nikaah would end when the stipulatd time period had come to an end witout the need for divorce. Also, it was not from the conditions for a Wali (guardian) to be present, rather the consent of the woman only. Then this Nikaah became Haram. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16803
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikaah_marital_contracts_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: What is the ruling of Mut’ah Nikaah?
📝 The answer:
Mut’ah Nikaah means for a man to marry a woman for an appointed time period, so he stipulates at the time of the contract that the time period of the marital contract is one month, or two months, or for a few days, and this type of marriage is Haram, impermissible and it is a null marital contract.
The Prophet (ﷺ) gave concession for this type of Nikaah at the beginning, then he prohibited it. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنِّي قَدْ كُنْتُ أَذِنْتُ لَكُمْ فِي الاِسْتِمْتَاعِ مِنَ النِّسَاءِ وَإِنَّ اللَّهَ قَدْ حَرَّمَ ذَلِكَ إِلَى يَوْمِ الْقِيَامَةِ فَمَنْ كَانَ عِنْدَهُ مِنْهُنَّ شَىْءٌ فَلْيُخَلِّ سَبِيلَهُ)
“I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off”
So this Nikaah became impermissible and it is considered to be null. If a man agrees with a woman to marry for a specified time period then it is a marital contract which is null, and him consummating the marriage is considered as Zina (illegal sexual intercourse).
Mut’ah Nikaah would end when the stipulatd time period had come to an end witout the need for divorce. Also, it was not from the conditions for a Wali (guardian) to be present, rather the consent of the woman only. Then this Nikaah became Haram. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16803
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikaah_marital_contracts_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم نكاح المتعة ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
نكاح المتعة معناه أن يتزوج الرجل امرأة الى أجل معلوم، فيتقدم إليها وقت الزواج على أن يكون الزواج لمدة شهر أو لمدة شهرين أو لأيام…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: ما حكم نكاح المتعة ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
نكاح المتعة معناه أن يتزوج الرجل امرأة الى أجل معلوم، فيتقدم إليها وقت الزواج على أن يكون الزواج لمدة شهر أو لمدة شهرين أو لأيام…
As the person said: 'Looking followed with smiling and greeting… speaking followed by setting a date and then meeting.'
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.
It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”
And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.
So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.
It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.
And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.
It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”
And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.
So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.
It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.
And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الاخ السائل: ما حكم الدراسة الاختلاطية بين الرجال والنساء في قاعة واحدة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا لا يجوز، فإنه سبب للفتنة، قال الله تعالى: ﴿قُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنِينَ يَغُضُّوا…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول الاخ السائل: ما حكم الدراسة الاختلاطية بين الرجال والنساء في قاعة واحدة؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
هذا لا يجوز، فإنه سبب للفتنة، قال الله تعالى: ﴿قُلْ لِلْمُؤْمِنِينَ يَغُضُّوا…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: If brown or yellow discharge leaves a woman whilst the time for her menstrual cycle is after a day or two from this day, is that which has left considered to be menstruation and so she doesn’t fast?
📝 The answer:
That which leaves a woman before the exiting of the menstrual blood, regardless of if it being some remnants (of old blood) or yellow discharge, it is not considered to be menstrual blood until her bleeding begins. Upon this, she must pray and fast, and she continues in her prayer and fasting until the bleeding begins.
As soon as the bleeding begins it is obligatory upon her to stop praying and fasting due to the Hadith of Umm ‘Atiyyah (رضي الله عنها) in Bukhari and Abu Dawud whereby she said:
كُنَّا لاَ نَعُدُّ الصُّفْرَةَ وَالْكُدْرَةَ شَيْئًا
"We did not think that the yellowish or brownish discharge counted for anything."
Hence the brown or yellow discharge is not considered to be menstrual blood, and Allah knows best.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16797
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_sawm_siyaam_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_menstruation_and_postnatalbleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: If brown or yellow discharge leaves a woman whilst the time for her menstrual cycle is after a day or two from this day, is that which has left considered to be menstruation and so she doesn’t fast?
📝 The answer:
That which leaves a woman before the exiting of the menstrual blood, regardless of if it being some remnants (of old blood) or yellow discharge, it is not considered to be menstrual blood until her bleeding begins. Upon this, she must pray and fast, and she continues in her prayer and fasting until the bleeding begins.
As soon as the bleeding begins it is obligatory upon her to stop praying and fasting due to the Hadith of Umm ‘Atiyyah (رضي الله عنها) in Bukhari and Abu Dawud whereby she said:
كُنَّا لاَ نَعُدُّ الصُّفْرَةَ وَالْكُدْرَةَ شَيْئًا
"We did not think that the yellowish or brownish discharge counted for anything."
Hence the brown or yellow discharge is not considered to be menstrual blood, and Allah knows best.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16797
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_sawm_siyaam_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_menstruation_and_postnatalbleeding
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بِسْمِ اللّــــهِ الرَّحْمَـــــــــنِ الرَّحِيمِ
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: إذا خرج من المرأة شيء من الغُبرة أو الصُفرة وموعد الحيض بعد يوم أو يومين من ذلك اليوم؟ هل تعتبر هذا الخارج من الحيض وتُفطر؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
الذي يخرج من…
📩 السُــــــــــــؤالُ :-
يقول السائل: إذا خرج من المرأة شيء من الغُبرة أو الصُفرة وموعد الحيض بعد يوم أو يومين من ذلك اليوم؟ هل تعتبر هذا الخارج من الحيض وتُفطر؟
📝 الإجـــــــــــابة :-
الذي يخرج من…
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: Is it permissible for a man to initiate the Salaam with an old women?
📝 The answer:
If she is old to the extent that he is safe from Fitnah and he won’t be suspect to doubt, then it is permissible for him to initiate the Salaam. In Sahih al-Bukhari on the authority of Sahl bin Sa’d (رضي الله عنه) that they used to walk by an elderly woman on Friday, greeting her with Salaam and she would respond to their Salaam and would give some of the companions some food after they had left the Friday prayer.
As for if there is suspicion present or doubt, or Fitnah is feared such as if she was young, and not from his close relatives, then he should not initiate the Salaam.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16860
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage_nikkah
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
📩 Question:
The questioner asks: Is it permissible for a man to initiate the Salaam with an old women?
📝 The answer:
If she is old to the extent that he is safe from Fitnah and he won’t be suspect to doubt, then it is permissible for him to initiate the Salaam. In Sahih al-Bukhari on the authority of Sahl bin Sa’d (رضي الله عنه) that they used to walk by an elderly woman on Friday, greeting her with Salaam and she would respond to their Salaam and would give some of the companions some food after they had left the Friday prayer.
As for if there is suspicion present or doubt, or Fitnah is feared such as if she was young, and not from his close relatives, then he should not initiate the Salaam.
Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16860
#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage_nikkah
#Fatwas_on_women
-----------------------------------
To subscribe to the fatwas of His Eminence Sheikh Muhammad bin Hizam via Telegram:-
https://t.me/ibnhezam
And in English:-
http://t.me/ibnhezamen
In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful
Telegram
فتاوى فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن حزام الفضلي البعداني حفظه الله وتولاه
بسم اللــــه الرحمـــــــــن الرحيم
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: هل يجوز للرجل أن يبتدئ السلام على كبيرات السن من النساء ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إن كانت كبيرة بحيث يأمن على نفسه من الفتنة ولا يتهم بريبة فيجوز أن يبدأها بالسلام، وفي صحيح…
📩 الســــــــــــــؤال :-
يقول السائل: هل يجوز للرجل أن يبتدئ السلام على كبيرات السن من النساء ؟
📝 الإجــــــــــــابة :-
إن كانت كبيرة بحيث يأمن على نفسه من الفتنة ولا يتهم بريبة فيجوز أن يبدأها بالسلام، وفي صحيح…