In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

Should Zakat al-Fitr be given to the eight types of people (that Zakat on wealth is given to)?

📝 The answer:

Zakat al-Fitr is to be given to the poor and the needy only, as has come in the Hadith of ibn ‘Abbaas who said:
فَرَضَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ زَكَاةَ الْفِطْرِ طُهْرَةً لِلصَّائِمِ مِنَ اللَّغْوِ وَالرَّفَثِ، وَطُعْمَةً لِلْمَسَاكِينِ، مَنْ أَدَّاهَا قَبْلَ الصَّلَاةِ، فَهِيَ زَكَاةٌ مَقْبُولَةٌ، وَمَنْ أَدَّاهَا بَعْدَ الصَّلَاةِ، فَهِيَ صَدَقَةٌ مِنَ الصَّدَقَاتِ
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and for the purpose of providing food for the needy. It is accepted as Zakah for the person who pays it before the Eid prayer and it is Sadaqah (i.e. voluntary charity) for the person who pays it after the Eid prayer.”

So it should be given to those in dire need from the poor and needy people. It should be given to the poor and the needy and none other, as has come in the Hadith.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16597

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr

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📩 Question:

What is the response to the one who says: Zakat al-Fitr should be given according to the needs of the poor person, if the poor person is in need of money, then he should be given money, and if the poor person is in need of food, then they should be given food. And they say that this detail was mentioned by Imam Ahmad?

📝 The answer:

As for Imam Ahmad (رحمه الله) then he did not say that. Rather, that which is known from Imam Ahmad (رحمه الله) that he issued a verdict that it must not be given in any form except for food.

So the matter is as has preceded and that is that benefit is in abiding by the legislative rulings how Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) wants it to be done. So that which Allah has commanded us to do, we do that.

As for giving ourselves authority in the religion of Allah (عز وجل) then this is not appropriate. That which is correct is that it is not connected to that which we view to be of benefit, rather the benefit is to act in accordance with the legislation of Allah (جل وعلا).

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16601

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr

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📩 Question:

What is the ruling of Zakat al-Fitr?

📝 The answer:

It is obligatory. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ibn ‘Umar (رضي الله عنهما) who said:
فَرَضَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ زَكَاةَ الفِطْرِ صَاعًا مِنْ تَمْرٍ، أَوْ صَاعًا مِنْ شَعِيرٍ عَلَى العَبْدِ وَالحُرِّ، وَالذَّكَرِ وَالأُنْثَى، وَالصَّغِيرِ وَالكَبِيرِ مِنَ المُسْلِمِينَ، وَأَمَرَ بِهَا أَنْ تُؤَدَّى قَبْلَ خُرُوجِ النَّاسِ إِلَى الصَّلاَةِ
“The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) enjoined the payment of one Saa' of dates or one Saa' of barley as Zakat-ul-fitr on every Muslim, slave or free, male or female, young or old, and he ordered that it be paid before the people went out to offer the 'Eid prayer.”

An-Nawawi said: "Ibn al-Mundhir mentioned there being a unanimous consensus upon this.” i.e., that it is from the obligations.

And from those who stated there being a unanimous consensus is Ishaaq bin Rahawey who said it is like a unanimous concensus amongst the people of knowledge.

Ibn Qudamah (رحمه الله عز وجل) said: “Zakat al-Fitr is obligatory upon ever Muslim, child or adult, male or female according to the majority of the people of knowledge. And it is obligatory upon the orphan, and their guardian must pay it on their behalf from their wealth. We do not know of anyone who opposed in this except for Muhammad bin al-Hassan who said: ‘There is no charity upon the wealth of a child’. And al-Hasan and al-Sha’bi said: ‘Zakat al-Fitr is upon the one who fasted from the slave or the free’.”

So the correct view is that it is obligatory upon every child or adult, male or female, even upon the slaves themselves. Zakat is not obligatory upon slaves however with regards to Zakat al-Fitr then it is obligatory upon their masters to give it on their behalf.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16615

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr

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📩 Question:

Is Zakat al-Fitr to be given on behalf of the child who was born on the night of ‘Eid?

📝 The answer:

He was born during the time of this worship thus it is to be given on his behalf and he is included in the Hadith:
عن كل صغير وكبير
“On behalf of every child or adult”

So the correct view is that it is obligatory for it to be given on his behalf. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16617

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Is Zakat al-Fitr obligatory on behalf of the embryo?

📝 The answer:

Zakat al-Fitr is obligatory upon every young or old person, regardless of if they are from those who fasted or they didn’t fast. As for an embryo, then it does not take the ruling of being outside, thus it is not obligatory to pay it on behalf of an embryo as perhaps it may not even be born alive, so there is no Zakat upon the embryo. Rather the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(على كل صغيرٍ وكبير ذكرٍ وأنثى)
“Upon every young or old, male or female."

And Zakat al-Fitr has been called Zakat al-Fitr in the legislation. So the terminology that it is Zakat al-Nafs (Zakat on behalf of the soul) as is used by some of the people, Zakat al-Nafs, the chosen view is to leave this name for it has not come in the legislative texts. The Prophet (ﷺ) called it Zakat al-Fitr and Sadaqat al-Fitr, so the wording should not be changed. The people have began calling it Zakat al-Nafs and this is a mistake, they should say Zakat al-Fitr.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16643

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_zakat
#Fatwas_on_zakat_al_fitr

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📩 Question:

How many Takbeers are there in the first and second Rak’ah of the ‘Eid prayer?

📝 The answer:

In Musnad Ahmad (24409) on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) that the Prophet (ﷺ) used to say seven Takbeers in the first Rak’ah of the two ‘Eids, and five Takbeers in the other Rak’ah not including the Takbeer of going into Rukoo’.

In Sunan Abu Dawud (1151) on the authority of ‘Amr bin Shu’aib from his father from ‘Abdullah bin ‘Amr bin al-‘Aas who said that the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(التَّكْبِيرُ فِي الْفِطْرِ سَبْعٌ فِي الْأُولَى، وَخَمْسٌ فِي الْآخِرَةِ، وَالْقِرَاءَةُ بَعْدَهُمَا كِلْتَيْهِمَا)
"The Takbir in ('Eid) al-Fitr prayer are seven in the first Rak'ah and five in the second, and the recitation of the Qur'an in both is after the Takbir."

And the Hadith has also come from other Sahaba, reaching the level of Hasan after taking into consideration all its chains of transmission.

Is Takbeerat al-Ihraam included in the seven or not included in the seven? There are two views:

Imam al-Shafi’i (رحمه الله) took the position that the Takbeerat al-Ihraam is not included in the seven because the speech about the Takbeeraat is specific to the ‘Eid prayer.

The Madhab of Malik and Ahmad is that the Takbeerat al-Ihraam is included in the seven. It has been established from ibn ‘Abbaas (رضي الله عنهما) that he would make seven Takbeers in the first Rak’ah including the Takbeerat al-Ihraam. It is reported by ibn Abi Shaybah (2/173) with an authentic chain of transmission.

And to act in accordance with what has come from ibn ‘Abbaas (رضي الله عنهما) is preferred, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/12132

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#Fatwas_on_prayer
#Fatwas_on_eid_prayer

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of a woman using contraceptive pills which causes the menstruation to stop so that she can fast?

📝 The answer:

Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) created the woman upon this nature, and that is the exiting of menstrual blood from her every month generaly. For a woman to remain according to her nature is more correct for her body, and better for her.

The legislation has commanded her to not fast and make up those fasts which she missed. In the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) who said:
كنا نُؤمرُ بِقضاء الصيام ولا نُؤمرُ بقضاء الصلاة
“We were ordered to make up for the fast, but were not ordered to make up for the prayer.”
i.e. during menstruation.

So for her to remain upon her natural state is better for her, and using these pills may effect her health, thus, leaving it off is better. It may cause some women harm, and those women for whom it causes harm whilst she knows that that is the case, then it is impermissible for her. If it causes harm then for her it is impermissible. As for some women it may not cause harm due to it being used rarely on a monthly occasion, so perhaps it may not cause any harm or it may cause some slight pains only.

It is disliked for the one who it causes slight pain for, as for the one who faces extreme pain and harm then it is impermissible for them.

(لا ضرر ولا ضرار)
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.”
﴿وَلا تُلْقُوا بِأَيْدِيكُمْ إِلَى التَّهْلُكَةِ﴾
“Do not contribute to your destruction with your own hands”

As for the acceptance of her fast, if no blood leaves her then the fast is correct. If her menstrual blood has stopped and doesn’t exit her, and she fasts, then the fast is correct. However, from the angle of advice, then the woman is advised to leave this off and to remain upon her natural state and that is better for her.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16732

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_mensturation_and_post_natal_bleeding

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Some people from the past due to ignorance got married in Ramadhaan and thus didn’t fast the whole month due to having intercourse with their spouse?

📝 The answer:

We seek refuge in Allah, this is a major sin, and the likes of this is not unknown amongst the Muslims. All the Muslims know that it is obligatory upon them to leave off food, drink and sexual intercourse. Hence, upon him is to seek repentance and to ask for forgiveness from this major sin.

If he believed that this was permissible for him due to ignorance, or due to him finding someone who issued him a verdict that this is permissible for the married individual as a concession from Allah, then this is extreme ignorance, however the affair is less serious and upon him is to make up the missed fasts.

If he was in doubt and he came across some people saying: ‘The married individual has a concession from fasting’ and so he didn’t fast, then this affair is less serious than the one before.

The one who takes sins lightly, then this is an extremely major sin and he is not able to make it up. As for the one who is in doubt, and he comes across those who issue him a religious verdict, thus believing this is permissible for him, then for such a person is to make up the missed fasts. As for the first person, then making up the fasts will not benefit him as he intended to transgress the boundaries.

The second person: was in doubt due to ignorance that due to his marriage he is not obligated to fast. This is possible of happening in some remote places faraway from knowledge and education, or amongst the non-Arabs, or the likes of this, so this second person must make up the missed fasts. As for the first person who intended whilst knowing that it is impermissible, then making it up will not benefit him, upon him is to seek repentance, to have remorse and to seek forgiveness, and upon him is to seek forgiveness from Allah in abundance.

Is there Kafarah (expiation) upon him for each day? i.e. for the one who is not ignorant of its impermissibility?
The answer: If he was not fasting from the start of the day to begin with, he did not intend to fast to begin with, then there are no Kafarahs upon him as he left off fasting to start with. He did not even intend to fast. As for if he broke his fast with sexual intercourse, then upon him is Kafarah for each day.

And without a doubt the Kafarah is transferred to feeding (the poor/needy) as fasting will be very difficult upon him. i.e. if we were to say: ‘for each day he must fast’, then he must fast sixty months. Thus, it is transferred to feeding, there is no doubt that it is transferred to feeding, and this is from the ease of the legislation upon him, and Allah knows best.


Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16728

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#Fatwas_on_expiations_for_those_who_break_their_fast

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: The Hadith:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم حتى نقول: إنه لا يفطر، ويفطر حتى نقول: إنه لا يصوم
The Prophet (ﷺ) used to fast until we would say: ‘He won't stop fasting’, and he would not fast until we would say: ‘He won't start fasting.'
What does this Hadith mean?

📝 The answer:

This Hadith is established in the Saheehayn on the authority of ‘A’ishah and Anas, and it has come from other than them. The meaning of the Hadith is that the Prophet (ﷺ) would set forth in fasting some of his days, day after day, three, four, and more than that. Many days in a row until they said: ‘He won’t break his fast’ i.e. he will continue.

Then he (ﷺ) will not fast for many consecutive days until it was said: ‘he will not fast during this month’ and then he will fast after that.

And its meaning is that he (ﷺ) wouldn’t have specific days of the month that he would habitualy fast. And a proof for this is the Hadith of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) in Saheeh Muslim whereby she said:
كان النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم يصوم من كل شهر ثلاثة أيام
“The Prophet (ﷺ) would fast three days of every month.”
It was said to ‘A’ishah:
من أي أيام الشهر كان يصوم؟
“Which days of the month would he fast?
She said:
لم يكن يبالي من أي أيام الشهر صام، فمرة يقدم، ومرة يؤخر، ليس له أيام معلومة في صومه صلى الله عليه وسلم.
“He did not pay attention to which days of the month he fasted, sometimes he will do it at the start, and other times during the end, he did not have known days with regards to his (ﷺ) fasting.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16724

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
#Fatwas_on_supererogatory_fasts_and_prohibited_fasts

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If a woman becomes pure from her post-natal bleeding after twenty days, must she fast?

📝 The answer:

Yes, she is obliged to fast by unanimous consensus of the scholars. It is not obliged for those going through post-natal bleeding to remain forty days, this is incorrect. Some people think that she is obliged to stay for forty days, this is a great error, rather she must stay until the bleeding stops. If the post-natal bleeding stops after twenty days for argument sake, or thirty, or twenty five, then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she becomes permissible for her husband.

That which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the blood according to the consensus of the scholars, with regards to that which is less than forty days by unanimous consensus of the scholars. They differed on whether if the bleeding doesn’t stop after reaching forty days.

Some of them said: forty days is sufficient for her, so she must take her Ghusl and pray. The correct view in this matter is that she waits for the blood to stop. So that which is taken into consideration is the stopping of the bleeding, even if she reaches fifty days, she continues not praying nor fasting until it stops.

Thus, it is incumbent upon the husbands to inform their wives, and it is incumbent upon the women to inform each other with regards to this ruling. Many of the women, especially in the villages, are ignorant of this ruling. They wait forty days, this is an error. If the bleeding stops then it is obligatory upon her to pray and fast, and she does not wait for forty days. The difference of opinion between the scholars is only in the scenario if she passes forty days, is only forty days sufficient for her or must she continue waiting, this is the difference of opinion. And the correct view in this is that she must wait for the bleeding to stop as long as it (the blood) still has its known characteristics, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16753

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#Fatwas_on_fasting
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#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_purity_taharah
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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Is the prayer nullified if the person prays and he has some food in his mouth?

📝 The answer:

If he swallows the food while it is manifest and he can get rid of it, and he can feel it, then it nullifies his prayer. If he put water in his mouth and spat it out, and he tries hard in removing the remains of the food but small remnants remain which he is not aware of, it flows with his saliva, then the scholars said: ‘It is not possible to take precaution against this and it does not nullify the prayer nor the fast’.

As for if he can feel it, and he can get rid of it, then he must not swallow it, not in the prayer and not during the fast, as it will nullify the worship. May Allah grand us and your success.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16774

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📩 Question:

From the well-known affairs is that the one who leaves of an obligation from the obligations of the prayer intentionally then his prayer is invalid, what is the evidence for this?

📝 The answer:

Firstly: The speech of the questioner is with regards to the obligation which is not a pillar, as for the pillar, then leaving it off nullifies the prayer according to the unanimous concensus of the scholars.

However, his speech is with regards to an obligation that necessitates the prostration of forgetfulness if it is forgotten.

The evidence that the one who leaves it off intentionally then his prayer is invalid is the Hadith of ‘A’ishah (رضي الله عنها) in the Saheehayn that the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(مَنْ أَحْدَثَ فِي أَمْرِنَا هَذَا مَا لَيْسَ مِنْهُ فَهُوَ رَدٌّ)
“He who espouses a new affair in this matter of ours (i.e., Islam) that is not from it will have it rejected (by Allah).”
And in the narration of Muslim:
(مَنْ عَمِلَ عَمَلاً لَيْسَ عَلَيْهِ أَمْرُنَا فَهُوَ رَدٌّ)
“He who did any act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, that is to be rejected.”

Hence, leaving of an obligation intentionally indicates negligence in the prayer, and showing no care for the commandments of Allah. You have left of an obligation from your own accord and not due to the legislation.

You have espoused in this religion and have transgressed against your Rabb. This is an indication of disobedience towards Allah and His Messenger, that one leaves of an obligation intentionally, how can his prayer be accepted?! He leaves off its obligations intentionally thus the prayer is invalid, Imam Ahmad mentioned this as well as others from the people of knowledge.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16770

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📩 Question:

A man says: His wife is fatigued from pregnancy, and her fatigue leads to extreme frailness in the bones which leads to lack of movement from her, is it permissible for her to use some methods of contraception?

📝 The answer:

If the fatigue that she goes through is excessive according to the intelligent proficient doctors, then there is no issue in preventing from the angle of removing the greater harm by taking the lesser of the two evils. It is permissible to remove the greater of the two evils, rather a person is commanded with this due to the speech of the Prophet (ﷺ):
(لاَ ضَرَرَ وَلاَ ضِرَارَ)
"There should neither be harming (of others without cause), nor reciprocating harm (between two parties)."

And before that the speech of Allah (سبحانه وتعالى):
﴿يُرِيدُ ٱللَّهُ بِكُمُ ٱلْيُسْرَ وَلَا يُرِيدُ بِكُمُ ٱلْعُسْرَ﴾
“Allah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you.”

And the speech of Allah (تعالى):
﴿وَمَا جَعَلَ عَلَيْكُمْ فِى ٱلدِّينِ مِنْ حَرَجٍۢ ﴾
“And He has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”.

However, it is incumbent to investigate the speech of the doctors, and all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Likewise, one must take the type of contraception which has the least harm, so she must not go and take those methods of contraception which lead to a greater harm than she is already facing.

As for using contraception without a need then it is Haram if it causes harm to the woman, and disliked if it doesn’t cause her harm, because it leads to harming her and preventing offspring which the legislation has commanded with and encouraged.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16782

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#Fatwas_on_general_and_specific_affairs
#Fatwas_on_women

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of Mut’ah Nikaah?

📝 The answer:

Mut’ah Nikaah means for a man to marry a woman for an appointed time period, so he stipulates at the time of the contract that the time period of the marital contract is one month, or two months, or for a few days, and this type of marriage is Haram, impermissible and it is a null marital contract.

The Prophet (ﷺ) gave concession for this type of Nikaah at the beginning, then he prohibited it. The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنِّي قَدْ كُنْتُ أَذِنْتُ لَكُمْ فِي الاِسْتِمْتَاعِ مِنَ النِّسَاءِ وَإِنَّ اللَّهَ قَدْ حَرَّمَ ذَلِكَ إِلَى يَوْمِ الْقِيَامَةِ فَمَنْ كَانَ عِنْدَهُ مِنْهُنَّ شَىْءٌ فَلْيُخَلِّ سَبِيلَهُ)
“I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off”

So this Nikaah became impermissible and it is considered to be null. If a man agrees with a woman to marry for a specified time period then it is a marital contract which is null, and him consummating the marriage is considered as Zina (illegal sexual intercourse).

Mut’ah Nikaah would end when the stipulatd time period had come to an end witout the need for divorce. Also, it was not from the conditions for a Wali (guardian) to be present, rather the consent of the woman only. Then this Nikaah became Haram. And all aid and assistance is sought from Allah alone.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16803

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikaah_marital_contracts_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women

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As the person said: 'Looking followed with smiling and greeting… speaking followed by setting a date and then meeting.'
These are all Fitan (plural of Fitnah) which have become widespread amongst the Muslims, and there is no might and no power except by Allah.

It is obligatory upon the guardians of the women to have Taqwa of Allah with regards to their womenfolk, and to not allow his daughter and neither his sister to free-mix with men, and it is obligatory upon him to have Taqwa of Allah.
﴿يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا قُوا أَنْفُسَكُمْ وَأَهْلِيكُمْ نَارًا وَقُودُهَا النَّاسُ وَالْحِجَارَةُ﴾.
“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones”

And how many men left their daughters, and allowed for her to have her freedom, and before he knew it after that he was trialled with his reputation being tarnished, and trialled with his close ones falling into Zina, and then after that from them is the one who wants to murder, and one that wants to disown, and the likes of this.

So this is from the Fitan that the enemies of Islam are striving towards to the highest degree by spreading it amongst the Muslims.

It is obligatory upon the leaders to separate between men and women, and that education is done for men separately and for women separately, and for the hospitals to have no free mixing within them, thus there being a section for women specifically separate from the men’s section.

And that which takes place from the extreme necessities, then the necessities have their own rulings. If a woman is in need to be treated by a man or the likes of this, then there is no issue.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16291

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_nikah_marriage
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_major_sins_and_prohibitions
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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: If brown or yellow discharge leaves a woman whilst the time for her menstrual cycle is after a day or two from this day, is that which has left considered to be menstruation and so she doesn’t fast?

📝 The answer:

That which leaves a woman before the exiting of the menstrual blood, regardless of if it being some remnants (of old blood) or yellow discharge, it is not considered to be menstrual blood until her bleeding begins. Upon this, she must pray and fast, and she continues in her prayer and fasting until the bleeding begins.

As soon as the bleeding begins it is obligatory upon her to stop praying and fasting due to the Hadith of Umm ‘Atiyyah (رضي الله عنها) in Bukhari and Abu Dawud whereby she said:
كُنَّا لاَ نَعُدُّ الصُّفْرَةَ وَالْكُدْرَةَ شَيْئًا
"We did not think that the yellowish or brownish discharge counted for anything."

Hence the brown or yellow discharge is not considered to be menstrual blood, and Allah knows best.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16797

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_sawm_siyaam_fasting
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_menstruation_and_postnatalbleeding

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner says: is it permissible to sell intoxicants to jews and christians in their country?

📝 The answer:

There is no doubt with regards to the impermissibility of this. On the authority of Anas bin malik (رضي الله عنه) reported by Ahmad, Tirmidhi and other than them, who said:
لَعَنَ رَسُولُ اللهِ (ﷺ) فِي الخَمْرِ عَشَرَةً: عَاصِرَهَا، وَمُعْتَصِرَهَا، وَشَارِبَهَا، وَحَامِلَهَا، وَالمَحْمُولَة إِلَيْهِ، وَسَاقِيَهَا، وَبَائِعَهَا، وَآكِلَ ثَمَنِهَا، وَالمُشْتَرِي لَهَا، وَالمُشْتَرَاة لَهُ
“Allah’s Messenger ﷺ cursed ten people in connection with wine:
The wine-presser, the one who has it pressed, the one who drinks it, the one who carries it, the one to whom it is carried to, the one who serves it, the one who sells it, the one who benefits from the price paid for it, the one who buys it, and the one for whom it is bought.”

And it has come in the two Sahihs in the hadith of Jabir, that the Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(إِنَّ اللهَ وَرَسُولَهُ حَرَّمَ بَيْعَ الخَمْرِ، وَالمَيْتَةِ، وَالخِنْزِيرِ، وَالأَصْنَامِ)
“Allah and His Messenger have declared forbidden the selling of wine, animals which have died without being legislatively slaughtered, swine and idols.”

Therefore it is not permissible to sell wine, and the wealth earnt from it is haram. And the evidences for the impermissibility of it are many and mass transmitted, and they are all general including the one who sells it to a Muslim or a non Muslim.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/15744

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_transactions
#Fatwas_on_buying_and_selling

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: Is it permissible for a man to initiate the Salaam with an old women?

📝 The answer:

If she is old to the extent that he is safe from Fitnah and he won’t be suspect to doubt, then it is permissible for him to initiate the Salaam. In Sahih al-Bukhari on the authority of Sahl bin Sa’d (رضي الله عنه) that they used to walk by an elderly woman on Friday, greeting her with Salaam and she would respond to their Salaam and would give some of the companions some food after they had left the Friday prayer.

As for if there is suspicion present or doubt, or Fitnah is feared such as if she was young, and not from his close relatives, then he should not initiate the Salaam.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16860

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_marriage_nikkah
#Fatwas_on_women

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In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

In the Name of Allāh, the Entirely Gracious, the Exclusively Merciful

📩 Question:

The questioner asks: A mans electrical device became faulty and so he went to a technician to fix it. He opened it and then returned it after not being able to fix the problem however he is requesting for the payment whilst he didn’t fix it. What is the ruling?

📝 The answer:

He is not entitled to be paid, because you did not give it to him except that he fixes it. If he had fixed some of the issues and other issues remained, then he is to be given in accordance with that which he fixed from the issues, if there is a benefit in the fixing of it.

It is incumbent that there is an agreement from the beginning whereby he says: ‘I will not give you anything unless you fix it'. As for you trying to fix it before returning it to me and then you say that you want the payment, then there is nothing for you.

So, he should agree with him from before so there doesn't arise a disagreement, and if there was no agreement then that which is from the customs of the people is that he should not be given anything except if he fixes it. And all aid and assistance is exclusively for Allah.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16862

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_transactions
#Fatwas_on_fees

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📩 Question:

The questioner asks: What is the ruling of women wearing fake eyelashes?

📝 The answer:

The correct view is that this falls under extensions that Allah (جل وعلا) has prohibited:
(لعن الله الْوَاصِلَات والمستوصلات)
"Allah cursed the woman who joins false hair to her real hair [extensions] and the one who asks for it to be done to her”

Thus, it is impermissible for a woman to do this, for this action is from that which Allah (جل وعلا) has prohibited.

The Prophet (ﷺ) said:
(لعن الله الْوَاصِلَات والمستوصلات)
"Allah cursed the woman who joins false hair to her real hair [extensions] and the one who asks for it to be done to her”

And the meaning of ‘Al-Waasilaat’ is that which is added to the hair (extensions). And ‘Al-Mustawsilaat’ is the one who asks for it to be done. Both of them are taking part in this great crime which has been conveyed in this Hadith.

Original Fatwa:
https://t.me/ibnhezam/16877

#Fatwas_on_fiqh
#Fatwas_on_women
#Fatwas_on_clothing_beauty_and_the_natural_predisposition_fitrah

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