delerium tremors
and 48 hr after last dose of alcohol mcq
Tumor lysis syndrom
and 48 hr after last dose of alcohol mcq
Tumor lysis syndrom
NORCET 11 question. MISSION NORCET β€οΈ
Q1. A woman in labor is receiving an oxytocin infusion. Which finding indicates that the nurse should stop/reduce the oxytocin infusion immediately?
A. 3 contractions in 10 minutes
B. 4 contractions in 10 minutes
C. 5 or more contractions in 10 minutes
D. Contractions lasting 40 seconds
Correct Answer: C. 5 or more contractions in 10 minutes
Explanation:
Uterine tachysystole is generally defined as more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over 30 minutes. Excessive contractions can reduce uteroplacental perfusion and cause fetal hypoxia. When tachysystole occurs during oxytocin administration, oxytocin should be stopped or reduced, and fetal status should be assessed.
Option-wise explanation:
- A: Three contractions/10 min is generally acceptable.
- B: Four contractions/10 min is generally acceptable if fetal status is reassuring.
- C: Correct. β₯5 contractions/10 min suggests uterine tachysystole.
- D: Contraction duration of 40 seconds alone does not indicate tachysystole.
---
Q2. What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
A. Dispur
B. Itanagar
C. Kohima
D. Gangtok
Correct Answer: B. Itanagar
Explanation:
Itanagar is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh. Dispur is the capital of Assam, Kohima of Nagaland, and Gangtok of Sikkim.
---
Q3. A patient following a head injury is unable to identify or recognize specific parts of his own body, such as his hands and legs. Which condition is most likely?
A. Aphasia
B. Agnosia
C. Autotopagnosia
D. Apraxia
Correct Answer: C. Autotopagnosia
Explanation:
Autotopagnosia is the inability to recognize or correctly identify one's own body parts, usually due to dysfunction involving the dominant parietal lobe. It is a form of body-schema disturbance.
Option-wise explanation:
- A: Aphasia = impaired language comprehension or expression.
- B: Agnosia = inability to recognize familiar sensory stimuli despite intact sensation.
- C: Correct. Autotopagnosia specifically involves inability to identify one's own body parts.
- D: Apraxia = inability to perform learned purposeful movements despite adequate strength and comprehension.
---
Q4. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?
A. Embarras
B. Embarass
C. Embarrass
D. Embarrase
Correct Answer: C. Embarrass
Explanation:
The correct spelling is Embarrass β E-M-B-A-R-R-A-S-S.
High-yield spellings:
- Weird
- Privilege
- Embarrass
---
Q5. The logo/symbol associated with India's Polio Eradication Programme is:image baded
A. Blue Ribbon
B. Red Cross
C. Pulse Polio symbol
D. Green Crescent
Correct Answer: C. Pulse Polio symbol
Explanation:
The Pulse Polio campaign uses its characteristic polio-immunization branding/logo to promote vaccination and polio eradication.
---
Q6. A 7-week pregnant woman presents with lower abdominal pain and slight vaginal bleeding. Her Ξ²-hCG is positive, and ultrasound shows an empty gestational sac inside the uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Molar pregnancy
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Complete abortion
Correct Answer: A Ectopic pregnancy
Q7. In the FRAMES model used for brief interventions, the letter M stands for:
A. Motivation
B. Modifications
C. Menu of options
D. Management
Correct Answer: C. Menu of options
Explanation:
FRAMES stands for:
F β Feedback
R β Responsibility
A β Advice
M β Menu of options
E β Empathy
S β Self-efficacy
The Menu of options means offering the patient different possible strategies rather than imposing a single solution.
---
Q8. A patient's HbA1c is 7%. What is the approximate estimated average blood glucose (eAG)?
A. 100 mg/dL
B. 126 mg/dL
C. 154 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C. 154 mg/dL
Explanation:
Formula:
eAG = (28.7 Γ HbA1c) β 46.7
For HbA1c 7%:
28.7 Γ 7 β 46.7
= 154.2 mg/dL
Therefore, the estimated average glucose is approximately 154 mg/dL.
Q10. Which ECG finding is characteristic of Type 1 Brugada pattern?
A. ST depression in V1βV3
B. Coved ST-segment elevation β₯2 mm in V1βV3 followed by a negative T wave
C. Diffuse ST elevation in all leads
D.
Q1. A woman in labor is receiving an oxytocin infusion. Which finding indicates that the nurse should stop/reduce the oxytocin infusion immediately?
A. 3 contractions in 10 minutes
B. 4 contractions in 10 minutes
C. 5 or more contractions in 10 minutes
D. Contractions lasting 40 seconds
Correct Answer: C. 5 or more contractions in 10 minutes
Explanation:
Uterine tachysystole is generally defined as more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over 30 minutes. Excessive contractions can reduce uteroplacental perfusion and cause fetal hypoxia. When tachysystole occurs during oxytocin administration, oxytocin should be stopped or reduced, and fetal status should be assessed.
Option-wise explanation:
- A: Three contractions/10 min is generally acceptable.
- B: Four contractions/10 min is generally acceptable if fetal status is reassuring.
- C: Correct. β₯5 contractions/10 min suggests uterine tachysystole.
- D: Contraction duration of 40 seconds alone does not indicate tachysystole.
---
Q2. What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
A. Dispur
B. Itanagar
C. Kohima
D. Gangtok
Correct Answer: B. Itanagar
Explanation:
Itanagar is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh. Dispur is the capital of Assam, Kohima of Nagaland, and Gangtok of Sikkim.
---
Q3. A patient following a head injury is unable to identify or recognize specific parts of his own body, such as his hands and legs. Which condition is most likely?
A. Aphasia
B. Agnosia
C. Autotopagnosia
D. Apraxia
Correct Answer: C. Autotopagnosia
Explanation:
Autotopagnosia is the inability to recognize or correctly identify one's own body parts, usually due to dysfunction involving the dominant parietal lobe. It is a form of body-schema disturbance.
Option-wise explanation:
- A: Aphasia = impaired language comprehension or expression.
- B: Agnosia = inability to recognize familiar sensory stimuli despite intact sensation.
- C: Correct. Autotopagnosia specifically involves inability to identify one's own body parts.
- D: Apraxia = inability to perform learned purposeful movements despite adequate strength and comprehension.
---
Q4. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?
A. Embarras
B. Embarass
C. Embarrass
D. Embarrase
Correct Answer: C. Embarrass
Explanation:
The correct spelling is Embarrass β E-M-B-A-R-R-A-S-S.
High-yield spellings:
- Weird
- Privilege
- Embarrass
---
Q5. The logo/symbol associated with India's Polio Eradication Programme is:image baded
A. Blue Ribbon
B. Red Cross
C. Pulse Polio symbol
D. Green Crescent
Correct Answer: C. Pulse Polio symbol
Explanation:
The Pulse Polio campaign uses its characteristic polio-immunization branding/logo to promote vaccination and polio eradication.
---
Q6. A 7-week pregnant woman presents with lower abdominal pain and slight vaginal bleeding. Her Ξ²-hCG is positive, and ultrasound shows an empty gestational sac inside the uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Molar pregnancy
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Complete abortion
Correct Answer: A Ectopic pregnancy
Q7. In the FRAMES model used for brief interventions, the letter M stands for:
A. Motivation
B. Modifications
C. Menu of options
D. Management
Correct Answer: C. Menu of options
Explanation:
FRAMES stands for:
F β Feedback
R β Responsibility
A β Advice
M β Menu of options
E β Empathy
S β Self-efficacy
The Menu of options means offering the patient different possible strategies rather than imposing a single solution.
---
Q8. A patient's HbA1c is 7%. What is the approximate estimated average blood glucose (eAG)?
A. 100 mg/dL
B. 126 mg/dL
C. 154 mg/dL
D. 200 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C. 154 mg/dL
Explanation:
Formula:
eAG = (28.7 Γ HbA1c) β 46.7
For HbA1c 7%:
28.7 Γ 7 β 46.7
= 154.2 mg/dL
Therefore, the estimated average glucose is approximately 154 mg/dL.
Q10. Which ECG finding is characteristic of Type 1 Brugada pattern?
A. ST depression in V1βV3
B. Coved ST-segment elevation β₯2 mm in V1βV3 followed by a negative T wave
C. Diffuse ST elevation in all leads
D.
Prolonged QT interval
Correct Answer: B. Coved ST-segment elevation β₯2 mm in V1βV3 followed by a negative T wave
Explanation:
Type 1 Brugada ECG pattern is characterized by a coved ST-segment elevation in the right precordial leads (V1βV3), followed by a negative T wave. It is the diagnostic Brugada ECG pattern.
---
Q11. A vaccine vial has a Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) that has reached the discard point. What should the nurse do?
A. Use the vaccine immediately
B. Shake the vial and use it
C. Discard the vaccine
D. Refrigerate it again and use later
Correct Answer: C. Discard the vaccine
Explanation:
A VVM indicates the cumulative heat exposure of a vaccine. When the inner square becomes the same color as or darker than the outer reference circle, the vaccine has reached the discard point and should not be used.
---
Q12. Which disease is NOT prevented by the MMR vaccine?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Rickettsial infection
Correct Answer: D. Rickettsial infection
Explanation:
MMR protects against Measles, Mumps and Rubella. Rickettsial infections are bacterial infections and are not prevented by MMR vaccination.
---
Q13. A conscious, oriented patient is in a potentially life-threatening condition but refuses treatment after receiving adequate information. Family members insist that treatment should be given. What should the nurse do?
A. Use force to provide treatment
B. Respect the patient's informed decision
C. Follow the family's decision
D. Delay the decision until the family agrees
Correct Answer: B. Respect the patient's informed decision
Explanation:
A competent adult who is conscious, oriented and capable of making an informed decision has the right to accept or refuse treatment. The nurse should ensure that the patient understands the risks, benefits and consequences, document the refusal, and follow institutional policy.
Key principle: Autonomy.
---
Q14. According to the latest available SRS data for 2026 what was India's Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR)?
A. 29 per 1,000 live births
B. 28per 1,000 live births
C. 30 per 1,000 live births
D. 40 per 1,000 live births
Correct Answer: B. 28 per 1,000 live births
Explanation:
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2026, India's U5MR was 28 deaths per 1,000 live births.
Exam note: U5MR means the probability of dying before reaching 5 years of age, expressed per 1,000 live births.
---
Q15. Before administering ivacaftor to a patient with cystic fibrosis, which laboratory parameter should the nurse assess?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum amylase
C. Serum calcium
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A. Liver function tests
Explanation:
Ivacaftor can cause elevated hepatic transaminases. Liver function should therefore be assessed before treatment and monitored during therapy, especially in patients with liver disease.
---
Q16. In a permanent pacemaker, what does VVIR mean?
A. Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
B. Ventricular paced, atrial sensed, triggered, rate responsive
C. Atrial paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
D. Dual chamber paced, dual sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
Correct Answer: A. Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
Explanation:
Pacemaker code:
V = Ventricle paced
V = Ventricle sensed
I = Inhibited response
R = Rate responsive
Therefore, VVIR is a single-chamber ventricular pacemaker with rate-response capability.
Q18. Under the 4T approach used in anaemia-focused interventions, which of the following represents the four Ts?
A. Treatment
B. Test,
C. Talk,
D. Track,
Correct Answer: A. Test, Treat, Talk, Track
Explanation:
The 4T approach is described as:
Test β Track.
The Track component emphasizes monitoring/follow-up and programme tracking. Current AMB materials also emphasize digital monitoring through a T4 approach.
---
Q19. Under India's National Strategic Plan for Leprosy 2023β2027, the major goal for 2027 is:
A. Zero transmission of leprosy
B. 1 case per 1,000 population
C. 10 cases per 1 lakh population
D. One case in one year
Correct Answer: B. Coved ST-segment elevation β₯2 mm in V1βV3 followed by a negative T wave
Explanation:
Type 1 Brugada ECG pattern is characterized by a coved ST-segment elevation in the right precordial leads (V1βV3), followed by a negative T wave. It is the diagnostic Brugada ECG pattern.
---
Q11. A vaccine vial has a Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) that has reached the discard point. What should the nurse do?
A. Use the vaccine immediately
B. Shake the vial and use it
C. Discard the vaccine
D. Refrigerate it again and use later
Correct Answer: C. Discard the vaccine
Explanation:
A VVM indicates the cumulative heat exposure of a vaccine. When the inner square becomes the same color as or darker than the outer reference circle, the vaccine has reached the discard point and should not be used.
---
Q12. Which disease is NOT prevented by the MMR vaccine?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Rickettsial infection
Correct Answer: D. Rickettsial infection
Explanation:
MMR protects against Measles, Mumps and Rubella. Rickettsial infections are bacterial infections and are not prevented by MMR vaccination.
---
Q13. A conscious, oriented patient is in a potentially life-threatening condition but refuses treatment after receiving adequate information. Family members insist that treatment should be given. What should the nurse do?
A. Use force to provide treatment
B. Respect the patient's informed decision
C. Follow the family's decision
D. Delay the decision until the family agrees
Correct Answer: B. Respect the patient's informed decision
Explanation:
A competent adult who is conscious, oriented and capable of making an informed decision has the right to accept or refuse treatment. The nurse should ensure that the patient understands the risks, benefits and consequences, document the refusal, and follow institutional policy.
Key principle: Autonomy.
---
Q14. According to the latest available SRS data for 2026 what was India's Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR)?
A. 29 per 1,000 live births
B. 28per 1,000 live births
C. 30 per 1,000 live births
D. 40 per 1,000 live births
Correct Answer: B. 28 per 1,000 live births
Explanation:
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2026, India's U5MR was 28 deaths per 1,000 live births.
Exam note: U5MR means the probability of dying before reaching 5 years of age, expressed per 1,000 live births.
---
Q15. Before administering ivacaftor to a patient with cystic fibrosis, which laboratory parameter should the nurse assess?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum amylase
C. Serum calcium
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A. Liver function tests
Explanation:
Ivacaftor can cause elevated hepatic transaminases. Liver function should therefore be assessed before treatment and monitored during therapy, especially in patients with liver disease.
---
Q16. In a permanent pacemaker, what does VVIR mean?
A. Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
B. Ventricular paced, atrial sensed, triggered, rate responsive
C. Atrial paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
D. Dual chamber paced, dual sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
Correct Answer: A. Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited, rate responsive
Explanation:
Pacemaker code:
V = Ventricle paced
V = Ventricle sensed
I = Inhibited response
R = Rate responsive
Therefore, VVIR is a single-chamber ventricular pacemaker with rate-response capability.
Q18. Under the 4T approach used in anaemia-focused interventions, which of the following represents the four Ts?
A. Treatment
B. Test,
C. Talk,
D. Track,
Correct Answer: A. Test, Treat, Talk, Track
Explanation:
The 4T approach is described as:
Test β Track.
The Track component emphasizes monitoring/follow-up and programme tracking. Current AMB materials also emphasize digital monitoring through a T4 approach.
---
Q19. Under India's National Strategic Plan for Leprosy 2023β2027, the major goal for 2027 is:
A. Zero transmission of leprosy
B. 1 case per 1,000 population
C. 10 cases per 1 lakh population
D. One case in one year
Correct Answer: A. Zero transmission of leprosy
Explanation:
India's NLEP/NSP 2023β2027 aims at interrupting leprosy transmission at the district level by 2027, with the broader goal of zero transmission, zero disability and zero discrimination.
---
Q20. Which type of multiple sclerosis is characterized by progressive neurological deterioration with superimposed acute relapses? Image based
A. Relapsing-remitting MS
B. Primary progressive MS
C. Secondary progressive MS
D. Progressive-relapsing MS
Correct Answer: D. Progressive-relapsing MS
Explanation:
Progressive-relapsing MS (PRMS) was historically described as a form of MS with continuous progression from onset plus acute relapses. Modern classifications have largely incorporated this pattern into primary progressive MS with activity, so the term PRMS is less commonly used today.
Exam point:
PRMS = Progression from onset + superimposed relapses.
---
Q21. A patient is unable to identify his own hands and legs despite having intact sensation. Which term best describes this deficit?
A. Anosognosia
B. Autotopagnosia
C. Prosopagnosia
D. Dysarthria
Correct Answer: B. Autotopagnosia
Explanation:
Autotopagnosia = inability to recognize or identify one's own body parts.
Remember:
- Auto β own body
- Prosopagnosia β inability to recognize faces
- Anosognosia β lack of awareness of one's own neurological deficit
- Dysarthria β impaired speech articulation
---
Q22. On ultrasound, a single deepest vertical pocket (single pocket) of amniotic fluid measures less than 2 cm. This finding indicates:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Normal amniotic fluid
D. Hydrops fetalis
Correct Answer: B. Oligohydramnios
Explanation:
Using the single deepest vertical pocket (SDP) method:
- <2 cm β Oligohydramnios
- 2β8 cm β Normal
- >8 cm β Polyhydramnios
Therefore, an SDP of less than 2 cm indicates oligohydramnios.
23. MAP question
24. snowman appearance on X ray
25. Paraphimosis
26. fluid calculation
27. Dose calculation
28. Acanthosis nigricans IBQ
29. pulse polia Mascot
Explanation:
India's NLEP/NSP 2023β2027 aims at interrupting leprosy transmission at the district level by 2027, with the broader goal of zero transmission, zero disability and zero discrimination.
---
Q20. Which type of multiple sclerosis is characterized by progressive neurological deterioration with superimposed acute relapses? Image based
A. Relapsing-remitting MS
B. Primary progressive MS
C. Secondary progressive MS
D. Progressive-relapsing MS
Correct Answer: D. Progressive-relapsing MS
Explanation:
Progressive-relapsing MS (PRMS) was historically described as a form of MS with continuous progression from onset plus acute relapses. Modern classifications have largely incorporated this pattern into primary progressive MS with activity, so the term PRMS is less commonly used today.
Exam point:
PRMS = Progression from onset + superimposed relapses.
---
Q21. A patient is unable to identify his own hands and legs despite having intact sensation. Which term best describes this deficit?
A. Anosognosia
B. Autotopagnosia
C. Prosopagnosia
D. Dysarthria
Correct Answer: B. Autotopagnosia
Explanation:
Autotopagnosia = inability to recognize or identify one's own body parts.
Remember:
- Auto β own body
- Prosopagnosia β inability to recognize faces
- Anosognosia β lack of awareness of one's own neurological deficit
- Dysarthria β impaired speech articulation
---
Q22. On ultrasound, a single deepest vertical pocket (single pocket) of amniotic fluid measures less than 2 cm. This finding indicates:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Normal amniotic fluid
D. Hydrops fetalis
Correct Answer: B. Oligohydramnios
Explanation:
Using the single deepest vertical pocket (SDP) method:
- <2 cm β Oligohydramnios
- 2β8 cm β Normal
- >8 cm β Polyhydramnios
Therefore, an SDP of less than 2 cm indicates oligohydramnios.
23. MAP question
24. snowman appearance on X ray
25. Paraphimosis
26. fluid calculation
27. Dose calculation
28. Acanthosis nigricans IBQ
29. pulse polia Mascot
Ab ap presan mt ho ho gya paper bs results ane do
Aage ki preparation kro kal se wps lg jao β€οΈπ―
Aage ki preparation kro kal se wps lg jao β€οΈπ―
AIIMS NORCET-11 Important Dates π’
π NORCET Pre (Stage-I) Exam Date:
π 12 September 2026
π NORCET Pre (Stage-I) Result:
π 18 September 2026 (Expected/As per published schedule)
π NORCET Mains (Stage-II) Exam Date:
π 30 September 2026
β€οΈ NORCET Mains (Stage-II) Result:
π 10 October 2026 (Expected/As per published schedule)
π NORCET Pre (Stage-I) Exam Date:
π 12 September 2026
π NORCET Pre (Stage-I) Result:
π 18 September 2026 (Expected/As per published schedule)
π NORCET Mains (Stage-II) Exam Date:
π 30 September 2026
β€οΈ NORCET Mains (Stage-II) Result:
π 10 October 2026 (Expected/As per published schedule)
The time gap between NORCET Prelims and Mains is very short, so do not wait for the Prelims result. Start your NORCET Mains preparation right away.
From tomorrow onwards, priority-based and intervention-focused NORCET Mains MCQs will be provided regularly. Stay consistent, keep practicing, and continue your preparation without interruption.
β€οΈAll the best! π±
From tomorrow onwards, priority-based and intervention-focused NORCET Mains MCQs will be provided regularly. Stay consistent, keep practicing, and continue your preparation without interruption.
β€οΈAll the best! π±
Good Morning, Future Nursing Officers! βοΈ
Today, I will be sharing all the important Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) MCQs, especially patient-priority and clinical decision-making questions relevant to NORCET Mains.
Make sure to revise FON thoroughly today from a NORCET Mains perspective.
π«ΆFON Quiz Time: 10:00 PM (Today)
Stay focused, stay consistent, and keep preparing with confidence. β€οΈ
Today, I will be sharing all the important Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) MCQs, especially patient-priority and clinical decision-making questions relevant to NORCET Mains.
Make sure to revise FON thoroughly today from a NORCET Mains perspective.
π«ΆFON Quiz Time: 10:00 PM (Today)
Stay focused, stay consistent, and keep preparing with confidence. β€οΈ
Medico.Junction pinned Β«Good Morning, Future Nursing Officers! βοΈ Today, I will be sharing all the important Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) MCQs, especially patient-priority and clinical decision-making questions relevant to NORCET Mains. Make sure to revise FON thoroughly todayβ¦Β»
chinu jat
Good Morning, Future Nursing Officers! βοΈ Today, I will be sharing all the important Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) MCQs, especially patient-priority and clinical decision-making questions relevant to NORCET Mains. Make sure to revise FON thoroughly todayβ¦
Aaj 10 pm p Norcet Mains Based important mcq share kr dunga Fon subject ke so ap quiz attempt kr lna usi time result share kr dunga β