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radiographer x-ray technician important 50 mcq
Q1. Which joint type allows free
movement and contains a synovial
cavity?
(A) Synovial
(B) Fibrous
(C) Cartilaginous
(D) Suture
Q2. Which muscle type is striated
and involuntary?
(A) Skeletal
(B) Cardiac
(C) Smooth
(D) Myofibroblast
Q3. Which membrane lines joint
cavities and secretes synovial
fluid?
(A) Serous
(B) Mucous
(C) Synovial
(D) Cutaneous
Q4. DEXA primarily measures:
(A) Bone length
(B) Bone turnover rate
(C) Bone marrow fat
(D) Bone mineral density
Q5. PET imaging detects photons
produced by:
(A) Positron-electron annihilation
(B) Compton scattering
(C) Photoelectric effect
(D) Bremsstrahlung
Q6. In embolization, the primary
aim is to:
(A) Dilate vessels
(B) Occlude vessels
(C) Dissolve clots
(D) Measure flow
Q7. During catheterisation, a
guidewire is used to:
(A) Deliver contrast
(B) Inflate balloon
(C) Provide vascular access
pathway
(D) Measure pressure
Q8. A vascular stent is used to:
(A) Occlude a vessel
(B) Measure flow
(C) Deliver contrast
(D) Maintain lumen patency
Q9. Tomosynthesis differs from
conventional radiography by:
(A) Reconstructing sections from
multiple projections
(B) Producing continuous
real-time images
(C) Using a single high-dose
exposure
(D) Being an ionizing-free
technique
Q10. SPECT imaging provides:
(A) Static planar images
(B) Tomographic 3D images
(C) Only PET images
(D) Ultrasound-like images
Q11. CT beam hardening artifact is
mainly due to:
(A) Detector malfunction
(B) Patient motion
(C) Preferential absorption of
low-energy photons
(D) Inadequate kVp
Q12. In MRI, gradient coils are
primarily responsible for:
(A) Producing the main magnetic
field
(B) RF transmission
(C) Cooling the magnet
(D) Spatial encoding
Q13. K-space in MRI contains:
(A) Raw spatial frequency data
(B) Patient's vital signs
(C) CT attenuation values
(D) Ultrasound Doppler shifts
Q14. Gadolinium-based contrast
agents in MRI primarily:
(A) Increase T2 relaxation
(B) Shorten T1 relaxation
(C) Block RF pulses
(D) Produce ionizing radiation
Q15. In MR angiography, TOF
stands for:
(A) Time of Flow
(B) Transfer of Flux
(C) Time of Flight
(D) Total Onset Function
Q16. Shim coils in an MRI are used
to:
(A) Amplify RF signals
(B) Steer gradients
(C) Cool gradients
(D) Correct field inhomogeneity
Q17. Added filtration in X-ray
tubes is used to:
(A) Remove low-energy photons
(B) Increase patient dose
(C) Focus the beam
(D) Reduce kVp
Q18. A rotating anode in an X-ray
tube primarily helps to:
(A) Increase focal spot size
(B) Dissipate heat over a larger
area
(C) Improve image contrast
(D) Reduce filament current
Q19. The air-gap technique
reduces scatter by:
(A) Using a grid
(B) Decreasing SID
(C) Increasing object-to-image
distance
(D) Using higher mAs
Q20. Stitch (stitching) radiography
is mainly used to:
(A) Increase magnification
(B) Improve contrast
(C) Reduce patient dose
dramatically
(D) Capture long bone or spine in
one image
Q21. Orthopantomography (OPG)
is primarily used for:
(A) Panoramic dental imaging
(B) Chest imaging
(C) Sinus tomography
(D) TMJ arthroscopy
Q22. One application of forensic
radiography is:
(A) Estimating bone density
(B) Age estimation using
ossification centers
(C) Measuring blood glucose
(D) ECG interpretation
Q23. The PNDT Act in India
primarily regulates:
(A) Radiation safety standards
(B) Use of PET scanners
(C) Prenatal diagnostic techniques
and sex determination
(D) Organ transplantation
Q24. Rapid serial radiography is
used to:
(A) Single static exposures
(B) Improve mammography
(C) Measure bone density
(D) Capture high-frame-rate
sequences, e.g., in angiography
Q25. A rapid cassette changer is
designed to:
(A) Swap cassettes quickly during
serial studies
(B) Develop film faster
(C) Clean cassettes automatically
(D) Digitize films
Q26. A pocket dosimeter is mainly
Q1. Which joint type allows free
movement and contains a synovial
cavity?
(A) Synovial
(B) Fibrous
(C) Cartilaginous
(D) Suture
Q2. Which muscle type is striated
and involuntary?
(A) Skeletal
(B) Cardiac
(C) Smooth
(D) Myofibroblast
Q3. Which membrane lines joint
cavities and secretes synovial
fluid?
(A) Serous
(B) Mucous
(C) Synovial
(D) Cutaneous
Q4. DEXA primarily measures:
(A) Bone length
(B) Bone turnover rate
(C) Bone marrow fat
(D) Bone mineral density
Q5. PET imaging detects photons
produced by:
(A) Positron-electron annihilation
(B) Compton scattering
(C) Photoelectric effect
(D) Bremsstrahlung
Q6. In embolization, the primary
aim is to:
(A) Dilate vessels
(B) Occlude vessels
(C) Dissolve clots
(D) Measure flow
Q7. During catheterisation, a
guidewire is used to:
(A) Deliver contrast
(B) Inflate balloon
(C) Provide vascular access
pathway
(D) Measure pressure
Q8. A vascular stent is used to:
(A) Occlude a vessel
(B) Measure flow
(C) Deliver contrast
(D) Maintain lumen patency
Q9. Tomosynthesis differs from
conventional radiography by:
(A) Reconstructing sections from
multiple projections
(B) Producing continuous
real-time images
(C) Using a single high-dose
exposure
(D) Being an ionizing-free
technique
Q10. SPECT imaging provides:
(A) Static planar images
(B) Tomographic 3D images
(C) Only PET images
(D) Ultrasound-like images
Q11. CT beam hardening artifact is
mainly due to:
(A) Detector malfunction
(B) Patient motion
(C) Preferential absorption of
low-energy photons
(D) Inadequate kVp
Q12. In MRI, gradient coils are
primarily responsible for:
(A) Producing the main magnetic
field
(B) RF transmission
(C) Cooling the magnet
(D) Spatial encoding
Q13. K-space in MRI contains:
(A) Raw spatial frequency data
(B) Patient's vital signs
(C) CT attenuation values
(D) Ultrasound Doppler shifts
Q14. Gadolinium-based contrast
agents in MRI primarily:
(A) Increase T2 relaxation
(B) Shorten T1 relaxation
(C) Block RF pulses
(D) Produce ionizing radiation
Q15. In MR angiography, TOF
stands for:
(A) Time of Flow
(B) Transfer of Flux
(C) Time of Flight
(D) Total Onset Function
Q16. Shim coils in an MRI are used
to:
(A) Amplify RF signals
(B) Steer gradients
(C) Cool gradients
(D) Correct field inhomogeneity
Q17. Added filtration in X-ray
tubes is used to:
(A) Remove low-energy photons
(B) Increase patient dose
(C) Focus the beam
(D) Reduce kVp
Q18. A rotating anode in an X-ray
tube primarily helps to:
(A) Increase focal spot size
(B) Dissipate heat over a larger
area
(C) Improve image contrast
(D) Reduce filament current
Q19. The air-gap technique
reduces scatter by:
(A) Using a grid
(B) Decreasing SID
(C) Increasing object-to-image
distance
(D) Using higher mAs
Q20. Stitch (stitching) radiography
is mainly used to:
(A) Increase magnification
(B) Improve contrast
(C) Reduce patient dose
dramatically
(D) Capture long bone or spine in
one image
Q21. Orthopantomography (OPG)
is primarily used for:
(A) Panoramic dental imaging
(B) Chest imaging
(C) Sinus tomography
(D) TMJ arthroscopy
Q22. One application of forensic
radiography is:
(A) Estimating bone density
(B) Age estimation using
ossification centers
(C) Measuring blood glucose
(D) ECG interpretation
Q23. The PNDT Act in India
primarily regulates:
(A) Radiation safety standards
(B) Use of PET scanners
(C) Prenatal diagnostic techniques
and sex determination
(D) Organ transplantation
Q24. Rapid serial radiography is
used to:
(A) Single static exposures
(B) Improve mammography
(C) Measure bone density
(D) Capture high-frame-rate
sequences, e.g., in angiography
Q25. A rapid cassette changer is
designed to:
(A) Swap cassettes quickly during
serial studies
(B) Develop film faster
(C) Clean cassettes automatically
(D) Digitize films
Q26. A pocket dosimeter is mainly
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used for:
(A) Long-term cumulative
monitoring
(B) Immediate readout of
occupational dose
(C) Environmental monitoring
only
(D) CT dose profiling
Q27. A free-air ionization chamber
is used as a:
(A) Patient monitor
(B) Portable survey meter
(C) Primary standard for exposure
measurement
(D) Film processor
Q28. A thimble ionization chamber
is typically used to measure:
(A) Ambient gamma background
(B) Film speed
(C) Chemical concentrations
(D) X-ray tube output and patient
dose
Q29. Water-soluble contrast like
Gastrografin is preferred for:
(A) Small bowel studies when
perforation suspected
(B) Intravenous angiography
(C) Mammography
(D) Arthrography
Q30. Sialography is an imaging
procedure for the:
(A) Biliary tree
(B) Salivary glands
(C) Renal collecting system
(D) Nasal sinuses
Q31. ERCP stands for:
(A) External Retrograde Cardio
Procedure
(B) Emergency Radiology CT
Procedure
(C) Endoscopic Retrograde
Cholangiopancreatography
(D) Endoscopic Radiographic
Cholangio Protocol
Q32. Hysterosalpingography is
mainly performed to assess:
(A) Cervical cancer
(B) Ovarian cysts
(C) Uterine prolapse
(D) Fallopian tube patency
Q33. Micturating
cystourethrography (MCU) is
primarily used to detect:
(A) Vesicoureteral reflux
(B) Kidney stones
(C) Liver cirrhosis
(D) Pulmonary embolism
Q34. Arthrography involves
injection of contrast into the:
(A) Vascular lumen
(B) Joint space
(C) Peritoneal cavity
(D) Biliary tree
Q35. CT fluoroscopy is especially
useful for:
(A) Whole-body screening
(B) Mammography
(C) Real-time guidance during
interventions
(D) Dental imaging
Q36. A dual-source CT scanner
has:
(A) Two detectors and one tube
(B) Only one X-ray source
(C) Two magnets
(D) Two X-ray sources and two
detector arrays
Q37. Cone-beam CT geometry is
commonly used in:
(A) Dental/maxillofacial imaging
(B) Nuclear medicine
(C) MR angiography
(D) Ultrasound
Q38. FNAC stands for:
(A) Full Needle Aspiration
Cytology
(B) Fine Needle Aspiration
Cytology
(C) Focal Neoplastic Aspiration
Check
(D) Fast Needle Aspiration Culture
Q39. Immunohistochemistry
(IHC) is used to detect:
(A) DNA sequences
(B) Blood glucose
(C) Specific proteins in tissue
sections
(D) Bacterial colonies
Q40. Leukocytosis refers to:
(A) Low platelet count
(B) Elevated hemoglobin
(C) Reduced red blood cells
(D) Increased white blood cell
count
Q41. Prothrombin time (PT)
primarily assesses which
coagulation pathway?
(A) Extrinsic
(B) Intrinsic
(C) Common
(D) Fibrinolytic
Q42. Bleeding time is a test of:
(A) Coagulation factor VIII activity
(B) Platelet function
(C) Kidney function
(D) Liver enzymes
Q43. Type I hypersensitivity
reactions are mediated by:
(A) Immune complexes
(B) T-lymphocytes
(C) IgE antibodies
(D) Complement
Q44. HRCT stands for:
(A) High-Rapid CT
(B) High-Rotation CT
(C) Heavy-Resolution CT
(D) High-Resolution CT
Q45. An Orthopantomogram
(OPG) image is produced by:
(A) Rotating the X-ray source and
receptor around the patient's head
(B) Rapid static exposure
(C) Simultaneous CT slices
(D) Using an ultrasound
transducer
Q46. A darkroom pass-through
box is used to:
(A) Store chemicals
(B) Transfer cassettes into
darkroom without exposing them
to light
(C) Mount films
(D) Dry films faster
Q47. The SMPTE test pattern is
primarily used to check:
(A) Grid alignment
(B) Cassette loading
(C) Monitor image quality and
performance
(D) Film emulsion quality
Q48. Viewbox maintenance is
important because it ensures:
(A) Consistent radiographic
technique
(B) Faster processing times
(C) Lower patient doses
(D) Uniform luminance for viewing
films
Q49. The Valsalva maneuver
during upper airway imaging is
used to:
(A) Demonstrate pharyngeal and
nasal cavity changes
(B) Increase blood pressure
(C) Improve contrast uptake
(D) Measure lung volumes
Q50. Phonation during laryngeal
imaging helps to visualize:
(A) Long-term cumulative
monitoring
(B) Immediate readout of
occupational dose
(C) Environmental monitoring
only
(D) CT dose profiling
Q27. A free-air ionization chamber
is used as a:
(A) Patient monitor
(B) Portable survey meter
(C) Primary standard for exposure
measurement
(D) Film processor
Q28. A thimble ionization chamber
is typically used to measure:
(A) Ambient gamma background
(B) Film speed
(C) Chemical concentrations
(D) X-ray tube output and patient
dose
Q29. Water-soluble contrast like
Gastrografin is preferred for:
(A) Small bowel studies when
perforation suspected
(B) Intravenous angiography
(C) Mammography
(D) Arthrography
Q30. Sialography is an imaging
procedure for the:
(A) Biliary tree
(B) Salivary glands
(C) Renal collecting system
(D) Nasal sinuses
Q31. ERCP stands for:
(A) External Retrograde Cardio
Procedure
(B) Emergency Radiology CT
Procedure
(C) Endoscopic Retrograde
Cholangiopancreatography
(D) Endoscopic Radiographic
Cholangio Protocol
Q32. Hysterosalpingography is
mainly performed to assess:
(A) Cervical cancer
(B) Ovarian cysts
(C) Uterine prolapse
(D) Fallopian tube patency
Q33. Micturating
cystourethrography (MCU) is
primarily used to detect:
(A) Vesicoureteral reflux
(B) Kidney stones
(C) Liver cirrhosis
(D) Pulmonary embolism
Q34. Arthrography involves
injection of contrast into the:
(A) Vascular lumen
(B) Joint space
(C) Peritoneal cavity
(D) Biliary tree
Q35. CT fluoroscopy is especially
useful for:
(A) Whole-body screening
(B) Mammography
(C) Real-time guidance during
interventions
(D) Dental imaging
Q36. A dual-source CT scanner
has:
(A) Two detectors and one tube
(B) Only one X-ray source
(C) Two magnets
(D) Two X-ray sources and two
detector arrays
Q37. Cone-beam CT geometry is
commonly used in:
(A) Dental/maxillofacial imaging
(B) Nuclear medicine
(C) MR angiography
(D) Ultrasound
Q38. FNAC stands for:
(A) Full Needle Aspiration
Cytology
(B) Fine Needle Aspiration
Cytology
(C) Focal Neoplastic Aspiration
Check
(D) Fast Needle Aspiration Culture
Q39. Immunohistochemistry
(IHC) is used to detect:
(A) DNA sequences
(B) Blood glucose
(C) Specific proteins in tissue
sections
(D) Bacterial colonies
Q40. Leukocytosis refers to:
(A) Low platelet count
(B) Elevated hemoglobin
(C) Reduced red blood cells
(D) Increased white blood cell
count
Q41. Prothrombin time (PT)
primarily assesses which
coagulation pathway?
(A) Extrinsic
(B) Intrinsic
(C) Common
(D) Fibrinolytic
Q42. Bleeding time is a test of:
(A) Coagulation factor VIII activity
(B) Platelet function
(C) Kidney function
(D) Liver enzymes
Q43. Type I hypersensitivity
reactions are mediated by:
(A) Immune complexes
(B) T-lymphocytes
(C) IgE antibodies
(D) Complement
Q44. HRCT stands for:
(A) High-Rapid CT
(B) High-Rotation CT
(C) Heavy-Resolution CT
(D) High-Resolution CT
Q45. An Orthopantomogram
(OPG) image is produced by:
(A) Rotating the X-ray source and
receptor around the patient's head
(B) Rapid static exposure
(C) Simultaneous CT slices
(D) Using an ultrasound
transducer
Q46. A darkroom pass-through
box is used to:
(A) Store chemicals
(B) Transfer cassettes into
darkroom without exposing them
to light
(C) Mount films
(D) Dry films faster
Q47. The SMPTE test pattern is
primarily used to check:
(A) Grid alignment
(B) Cassette loading
(C) Monitor image quality and
performance
(D) Film emulsion quality
Q48. Viewbox maintenance is
important because it ensures:
(A) Consistent radiographic
technique
(B) Faster processing times
(C) Lower patient doses
(D) Uniform luminance for viewing
films
Q49. The Valsalva maneuver
during upper airway imaging is
used to:
(A) Demonstrate pharyngeal and
nasal cavity changes
(B) Increase blood pressure
(C) Improve contrast uptake
(D) Measure lung volumes
Q50. Phonation during laryngeal
imaging helps to visualize:
🔥2❤1
(A) Nasal turbinates
(B) Vocal cord motion
(C) Thyroid gland size
(D) Paranasal sinuses
Answers:
Q1. A Q2. B Q3. C Q4. D Q5. A Q6. B Q7. C Q8. D Q9. A Q10. B Q11. C Q12. D Q13. A Q14. B
Q15. C Q16. D Q17. A Q18. B Q19. C Q20. D Q21. A Q22. B Q23. C Q24. D Q25. A Q26. B Q27. C
Q28. D Q29. A Q30. B Q31. C Q32. D Q33. A Q34. B Q35. C Q36. D
Q37. A Q38. B Q39. C Q40. D Q41. AQ42. B Q43. C Q44. D Q45. A Q46. B Q47. C Q48. D Q49. A
Q50. B
(B) Vocal cord motion
(C) Thyroid gland size
(D) Paranasal sinuses
Answers:
Q1. A Q2. B Q3. C Q4. D Q5. A Q6. B Q7. C Q8. D Q9. A Q10. B Q11. C Q12. D Q13. A Q14. B
Q15. C Q16. D Q17. A Q18. B Q19. C Q20. D Q21. A Q22. B Q23. C Q24. D Q25. A Q26. B Q27. C
Q28. D Q29. A Q30. B Q31. C Q32. D Q33. A Q34. B Q35. C Q36. D
Q37. A Q38. B Q39. C Q40. D Q41. AQ42. B Q43. C Q44. D Q45. A Q46. B Q47. C Q48. D Q49. A
Q50. B
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