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*EXPLANATIONS AND CORRECTION for the 50 JAMB past Chemistry questions๐Ÿ“โœ…โœ… ๐Ÿ“š*




1. C โ€” Carbon (IV) sulphide

Iodine dissolves in carbon (IV) sulphide while sulphur does not, so it separates them.

2. B โ€” Different sizes

Sieving separates solid particles based on particle size differences.

3. C โ€” Clay

Clay contains aluminium, silicon, oxygen, and hydrogen.

4. C โ€” Alkaline

Sodium reacts with water to form NaOH, which is alkaline.

5. B โ€” Hydrogen

Acid + metal โ†’ salt + hydrogen gas.

6. B โ€” Atom

The smallest unit of an element is an atom.

7. C โ€” Melting

Melting is a physical change (no new substance formed).

8. B โ€” Mixture

Air is a mixture of gases like oxygen and nitrogen.

9. B โ€” 7

Pure water is neutral โ†’ pH = 7.

10. B โ€” NaOH

NaOH is a base (alkali).

11. B โ€” 2

Oxygen has valency 2.

12. C โ€” Neon

Neon is a noble (inert) gas.

13. B โ€” Galvanization

Coating iron with zinc prevents rusting.

14. C โ€” Carbon dioxide

COโ‚‚ turns limewater milky.

15. B โ€” Liquid turns gas

Boiling is liquid โ†’ gas.

16. C โ€” Methane

Methane is an alkane (single bonds).
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17. B โ€” Ethene

Ethene is unsaturated (has double bond).

18. C โ€” Loss of electrons

Oxidation = loss of electrons.

19. A โ€” Gain of electrons

Reduction = gain of electrons.

20. C โ€” Hโ‚‚SOโ‚„

Sulphuric acid is an acid.

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21. B โ€” NHโ‚ƒ

Ammonia formula is NHโ‚ƒ.

22. B โ€” Hydrogen

Atomic number 1 = hydrogen.

23. B โ€” Atomic number

Modern periodic table is arranged by atomic number.

24. C โ€” Gold

Gold is very unreactive.

25. B โ€” Iron

Haematite is iron ore.

26. C โ€” Bent

Water molecule has a bent shape.

27. B โ€” Ionization energy

It increases across a period.

28. B โ€” HCl

HCl is a strong acid.

29. B โ€” Kilogram

SI unit of mass = kg.

30. B โ€” Oxygen

Oxygen supports combustion.

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31. A โ€” NaCl

Common salt is sodium chloride.

32. C โ€” Vaporization

Liquid โ†’ gas.

33. B โ€” Platinum

Platinum acts as a catalyst.

34. C โ€” CHโ‚„

Methane is an organic compound.

35. B โ€” Alcohols

Alkanols = alcohols.

36. B โ€” Secondary alcohols

They oxidize to form alkanones.

37. C โ€” Bromine water

Unsaturated compounds decolourize bromine water.

38. B โ€” Isoprene

Natural rubber is made from isoprene.

39. B โ€” Polythene

Polythene is a polymer.

40. B โ€” Benzene

Benzene is aromatic.

41. D โ€” Al (Aluminium)

Among the options, aluminium is least easily oxidized due to oxide layer protection.

42. B โ€” Glucose + Fructose

Sucrose is made of glucose and fructose.

43. B โ€” Compound

Water is a compound (Hโ‚‚O).

44. B โ€” CO

Carbon monoxide is a neutral oxide.

45. B โ€” 18

Hโ‚‚O = (2ร—1) + 16 = 18.

46. B โ€” Acetylene

Used in welding (oxy-acetylene flame).

47. C โ€” Protons and neutrons

Nucleus contains protons and neutrons.

48. C โ€” Oxygen and water

Both are needed for rusting.

49. B โ€” Kelvin

SI unit of temperature.

50. B โ€” Kerosene

Used for heating and cooking.

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Examfans Help Academy Team CARES ๐Ÿ“๐Ÿ“š๐Ÿง‘โ€๐Ÿ’ป
๐‰๐€๐Œ๐ ๐‚๐๐“ ๐๐‡๐˜๐’๐ˆ๐‚๐’ MOST REPEATED ๐๐”๐„๐’๐“๐ˆ๐Ž๐๐’ ๐€๐๐ƒ ๐€๐๐’๐–๐„๐‘๐’:

๐Ÿญ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿด)
An object is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. What is the image distance?
A. 30 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 25 cm

๐Ÿฎ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ)
A concave mirror produces a real image twice the size of the object. If the object distance is 15 cm, what is the focal length?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm

๐Ÿฏ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿฒ)
An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The image formed is:
A. virtual, erect, diminished
B. real, inverted, same size
C. real, inverted, magnified
D. virtual, erect, magnified

๐Ÿฐ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿต)
A concave mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. An object is placed 18 cm from the mirror. Find the magnification.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 0.5

๐Ÿฑ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿณ)
An object placed between the focal point and pole of a concave mirror produces an image that is:
A. real and inverted
B. virtual and erect
C. real and erect
D. virtual and inverted

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๐Ÿฒ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿญ)
A concave mirror forms an image at 24 cm when the object is placed at 8 cm from the mirror. What is the focal length?
A. 6 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 18 cm
D. 4 cm

๐Ÿณ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿฑ)
The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 40 cm. What is its focal length?
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm

๐Ÿด. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฎ)
An object 5 cm high is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the image height.
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 5 cm

๐Ÿต. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿญ๐Ÿฐ)
A concave mirror produces a virtual image when the object is placed:
A. beyond centre of curvature
B. at centre of curvature
C. between centre and focus
D. between focus and pole

๐Ÿญ๐Ÿฌ. (๐—๐—”๐— ๐—• ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฌ๐Ÿฎ๐Ÿฏ)
A concave mirror forms an image of magnification -3. What does this indicate?
A. image is upright and magnified
B. image is inverted and magnified
C. image is inverted and diminished
D. image is upright and diminished

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๐‘บ๐’‰๐’‚๐’“๐’† ๐’˜๐’Š๐’•๐’‰ ๐’š๐’๐’–๐’“ ๐’‡๐’“๐’Š๐’†๐’๐’…๐’” ๐’‚๐’๐’… ๐’๐’ ๐’š๐’๐’–๐’“ ๐’„๐’๐’‚๐’”๐’” ๐’ˆ๐’“๐’๐’–๐’‘๐’”.
ฬฒ๐‘บฬฒ๐‘ถฬฒ๐‘ณฬฒ๐‘ผฬฒ๐‘ปฬฒ๐‘ฐฬฒ๐‘ถฬฒ๐‘ตฬฒ๐‘บฬฒ:
๐‘บ๐’•๐’†๐’‘-๐’ƒ๐’š-๐‘บ๐’•๐’†๐’‘ ๐’”๐’๐’๐’–๐’•๐’Š๐’๐’๐’”

1.
Given: u = 15 cm, f = 10 cm
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/10 = 1/v + 1/15
1/v = 1/10 โˆ’ 1/15
1/v = (3 โˆ’ 2)/30 = 1/30
v = 30 cm
Answer: A

2.
Given: m = 2, u = 15 cm
m = v/u
v = 2 ร— 15 = 30 cm
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/f = 1/30 + 1/15
1/f = (1 + 2)/30 = 3/30 = 1/10
f = 10 cm
Answer: B

3.
At centre of curvature:
Image is real, inverted, same size
Answer: B

4.
Given: f = 12 cm, u = 18 cm
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/12 = 1/v + 1/18
1/v = 1/12 โˆ’ 1/18
1/v = (3 โˆ’ 2)/36 = 1/36
v = 36 cm
m = v/u = 36/18 = 2
Answer: A

5.
Object between focus and pole:
Image is virtual, erect, magnified
Answer: B

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6.
Given: u = 8 cm, v = 24 cm
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/f = 1/24 + 1/8
1/f = (1 + 3)/24 = 4/24 = 1/6
f = 6 cm
Answer: A

7.
Given: R = 40 cm
f = R/2
f = 40/2 = 20 cm
Answer: B

8.
Given: ho = 5 cm, u = 20 cm, f = 15 cm
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/15 = 1/v + 1/20
1/v = 1/15 โˆ’ 1/20
1/v = (4 โˆ’ 3)/60 = 1/60
v = 60 cm
m = v/u = 60/20 = 3
hi = m ร— ho = 3 ร— 5 = 15 cm
Answer: B

9.
Virtual image occurs when object is between focus and pole
Answer: D

10.
Given: m = โˆ’3
Negative โ†’ inverted
Magnitude > 1 โ†’ magnified
Answer: B

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๐‘บ๐’‰๐’‚๐’“๐’† ๐’˜๐’Š๐’•๐’‰ ๐’š๐’๐’–๐’“ ๐’‡๐’“๐’Š๐’†๐’๐’…๐’” ๐’‚๐’๐’… ๐’๐’ ๐’š๐’๐’–๐’“ ๐’„๐’๐’‚๐’”๐’” ๐’ˆ๐’“๐’๐’–๐’‘๐’”.
*50 JAMB GOVERNMENT Likely Repeated Past Questions*

1. Government is defined as
A. an institution for making laws
B. a system of ruling a state
C. a body of individuals who rule a state
D. an organization of political parties


2. The primary purpose of government is
A. making profit
B. maintaining law and order
C. entertaining citizens
D. conducting elections


3. Which of the following is not a feature of a state?
A. Population
B. Sovereignty
C. Religion
D. Territory


4. Sovereignty means
A. independence
B. authority to rule
C. power sharing
D. military rule


5. A constitution is
A. a set of laws guiding a state
B. a book of records
C. an election guideline
D. a judicial process


6. Democracy is a system where
A. rulers are selected by the military
B. people rule directly or indirectly
C. kings rule absolutely
D. judges rule the state


7. Which system allows division of powers?
A. Unitary
B. Federal
C. Monarchy
D. Confederal


8. The rule of law implies
A. equality before the law
B. rule by the military
C. rule by judges
D. rule by elites


9. Legislature is responsible for
A. executing laws
B. interpreting laws
C. making laws
D. enforcing laws


10. The executive arm of government is responsible for
A. making laws
B. enforcing laws
C. interpreting laws
D. amending laws


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11. The judiciary is responsible for
A. enforcing laws
B. interpreting laws
C. making laws
D. electing leaders


12. Separation of powers was proposed by
A. Karl Marx
B. Montesquieu
C. John Locke
D. Rousseau


13. A written constitution is
A. partly written
B. fully documented
C. not documented
D. flexible


14. An unwritten constitution is
A. partly written and based on conventions
B. fully documented
C. rigid
D. illegal


15. Franchise means
A. right to rule
B. right to vote
C. right to protest
D. right to speak


16. Universal adult suffrage means
A. only men vote
B. only women vote
C. all adults can vote
D. only elites vote


17. A political party is
A. a group seeking political power
B. a social club
C. a judicial body
D. a pressure group


18. Pressure groups aim to
A. contest elections
B. influence government policies
C. overthrow government
D. enforce laws


19. The head of state in Nigeria is the
A. Chief Justice
B. Senate President
C. President
D. Governor

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20. Nigeria operates a
A. parliamentary system
B. presidential system
C. monarchical system
D. military system


21. The upper house of Nigeriaโ€™s legislature is
A. House of Assembly
B. Senate
C. House of Representatives
D. Cabinet


22. The lower house is
A. Senate
B. House of Representatives
C. Judiciary
D. Council


23. Federalism involves
A. concentration of power
B. division of powers
C. military rule
D. monarchy


24. A unitary system has
A. division of power
B. centralized power
C. no government
D. multiple constitutions


25. Checks and balances ensure
A. cooperation only
B. no abuse of power
C. dictatorship
D. military rule


26. A coup dโ€™รฉtat is
A. peaceful transition
B. violent overthrow of government
C. election process
D. judicial ruling


27. Rule by one person is
A. democracy
B. oligarchy
C. monarchy
D. aristocracy


28. Oligarchy means
A. rule by many
B. rule by few
C. rule by one
D. rule by all


29. The Nigerian constitution was last amended in
A. 1960
B. 1979
C. 1999
D. 2010


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30. Citizenship can be acquired by
A. birth
B. registration
C. naturalization
D. all of the above


31. A referendum is
A. election of leaders
B. direct vote by people on an issue
C. military decision
D. judicial ruling


32. Public opinion refers to
A. government decisions
B. citizensโ€™ views
C. judicial rulings
D. party manifestos
33. Political socialization is
A. learning political values
B. voting
C. campaigning
D. protesting


34. Agents of political socialization include
A. family
B. school
C. media
D. all of the above


35. The electoral commission in Nigeria is
A. EFCC
B. INEC
C. NNPC
D. ICPC


36. Secret ballot ensures
A. open voting
B. voter privacy
C. election rigging
D. public voting


37. A manifesto is
A. party program
B. law
C. constitution
D. policy document


38. Delegated legislation is made by
A. judiciary
B. executive
C. legislature
D. citizens


39. Bicameral legislature has
A. one chamber
B. two chambers
C. three chambers
D. no chamber

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40. Unicameral legislature has
A. one chamber
B. two chambers
C. three chambers
D. four chambers


41. Impeachment is
A. election process
B. removal of a leader
C. law making
D. judicial review


42. Cabinet members are appointed by
A. legislature
B. judiciary
C. president
D. citizens


43. Local government is the
A. highest level
B. lowest level
C. federal level
D. judicial level


44. The term of office of Nigerian president is
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years


45. The head of judiciary is
A. President
B. Chief Justice
C. Speaker
D. Governor


46. A constitution is rigid when it is
A. easy to amend
B. difficult to amend
C. unwritten
D. flexible


47. A flexible constitution is
A. difficult to amend
B. easy to amend
C. rigid
D. illegal


48. Electoral malpractices include
A. fair voting
B. rigging
C. transparency
D. accountability


49. Independence means
A. self-rule
B. colonial rule
C. military rule
D. foreign rule


50. Colonialism is
A. self-government
B. foreign domination
C. democracy
D. federalism

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Examfans Help Academy CARES ๐Ÿง‘โ€๐Ÿ’ป๐Ÿ“๐Ÿ“š
*JAMB GOVERNMENT ANSWER AND SOLUTIONS*

1. C โ€“ Government is the body of people that rules a state


2. B โ€“ Main aim is to maintain law and order


3. C โ€“ Religion is not a feature of a state


4. B โ€“ Sovereignty = supreme authority to rule


5. A โ€“ Constitution = rules guiding a state


6. B โ€“ Democracy = rule by the people


7. B โ€“ Federal system divides powers


8. A โ€“ Rule of law = equality before the law


9. C โ€“ Legislature makes laws


10. B โ€“ Executive enforces laws


11. B โ€“ Judiciary interprets laws


12. B โ€“ Montesquieu proposed separation of powers


13. B โ€“ Written constitution is fully documented


14. A โ€“ Unwritten = partly written + conventions


15. B โ€“ Franchise = right to vote


16. C โ€“ Universal suffrage = all adults vote


17. A โ€“ Political party seeks power


18. B โ€“ Pressure groups influence policies


19. C โ€“ President is Nigeriaโ€™s head of state


20. B โ€“ Nigeria uses presidential system


21. B โ€“ Senate is upper house


22. B โ€“ House of Representatives is lower house


23. B โ€“ Federalism = division of powers


24. B โ€“ Unitary = centralized power


25. B โ€“ Checks and balances prevent abuse


26. B โ€“ Coup = violent takeover


27. C โ€“ Monarchy = rule by one


28. B โ€“ Oligarchy = rule by few


29. C โ€“ 1999 constitution


30. D โ€“ All listed are ways of citizenship


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31. B โ€“ Referendum = direct voting on issues


32. B โ€“ Public opinion = views of citizens


33. A โ€“ Political socialization = learning politics


34. D โ€“ All listed are agents


35. B โ€“ INEC conducts elections


36. B โ€“ Secret ballot protects privacy


37. A โ€“ Manifesto = party plans


38. B โ€“ Executive makes delegated laws


39. B โ€“ Bicameral = two chambers


40. A โ€“ Unicameral = one chamber


41. B โ€“ Impeachment = removal from office


42. C โ€“ President appoints cabinet


43. B โ€“ Local government = lowest level


44. B โ€“ President serves 4 years


45. B โ€“ Chief Justice heads judiciary


46. B โ€“ Rigid constitution is hard to amend


47. B โ€“ Flexible constitution is easy to amend


48. B โ€“ Rigging is malpractice


49. A โ€“ Independence = self-rule


50. B โ€“ Colonialism = foreign rule


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Examfans Help Academy Team CARES ๐Ÿง‘โ€๐Ÿ’ปโœ…๐Ÿ“š๐Ÿ“
*JAMB IDIOMS WITH MEANINGS CONTD*

150. Zip your lip โ€“ be quiet
151. A bed of roses โ€“ easy, comfortable situation
152. A bitter pill to swallow โ€“ difficult to accept
153. A fool's paradise โ€“ false happiness
154. A gentleman at large โ€“ unemployed person
155. A house divided against itself โ€“ group in conflict
156. A man of letters โ€“ scholar
157. A man of parts โ€“ talented person
158. A narrow escape โ€“ barely avoiding danger
159. A snake in the grass โ€“ deceitful person
160. A storm in a teacup โ€“ great excitement over small matter
161. A tall order โ€“ unreasonable demand
162. A wet blanket โ€“ person who spoils fun
163. Above one's bend โ€“ beyond ability
164. Achilles' spear โ€“ something that can heal and harm
165. Act high and mighty โ€“ behave arrogantly
166. Actions speak louder than words โ€“ deeds matter more
167. Afraid of one's shadow โ€“ easily frightened
168. All agog โ€“ very eager
169. All at sea โ€“ confused
170. All fingers and thumbs โ€“ clumsy
171. All in all โ€“ everything considered
172. All that glitters is not gold โ€“ looks deceive
173. Along these lines โ€“ in this way
174. An eye for an eye โ€“ revenge
175. An iron hand โ€“ strict control
176. An ounce of prevention โ€“ better to prevent than cure
177. Apple never falls far from tree โ€“ children resemble parents
178. As cool as cucumber โ€“ very calm
179. As old as hills โ€“ very old
180. As the crow flies โ€“ in straight line
181. At all costs โ€“ regardless of expense
182. At cross purposes โ€“ misunderstanding each other
183. At dagger drawn โ€“ bitterly hostile
184. At death's door โ€“ very ill
185. At loose ends โ€“ restless
186. At one's wit's end โ€“ completely puzzled
187. At the drop of a hat โ€“ immediately
188. At the eleventh hour โ€“ last moment
189. Back against the wall โ€“ in desperate situation
190. Back to the drawing board โ€“ start over
191. Bad blood โ€“ ill feeling
192. Bad egg โ€“ dishonest person
193. Bags of something โ€“ plenty
194. Ball and chain โ€“ burden
195. Baptism of fire โ€“ first difficult experience
196. Be all ears โ€“ listening keenly
197. Be in the air โ€“ about to happen
198. Bear fruit โ€“ yield results
199. Beat a dead horse โ€“ waste effort
200. Beat one's breast โ€“ show guilt
201. Bed of thorns โ€“ difficult situation
202. Bee in one's bonnet โ€“ obsession
203. Beggar description โ€“ indescribable
204. Behind bars โ€“ in prison
205. Behind someone's back โ€“ secretly
206. Bell the cat โ€“ do risky task for others
207. Beside oneself โ€“ overwhelmed by emotion
208. Big gun โ€“ important person
209. Bird in hand is worth two in bush โ€“ keep sure thing
210. Bird's eye view โ€“ overall view
211. Bite the dust โ€“ die or fail
212. Black and blue โ€“ bruised
213. Black and white โ€“ in writing
214. Blank cheque โ€“ full authority
215. Blaze a trail โ€“ pioneer
216. Bleed white โ€“ drain resources
217. Blessing in disguise โ€“ apparent misfortune with benefit
218. Blind as a bat โ€“ very poor sight
219. Blow a fuse โ€“ become very angry
220. Blow off steam โ€“ release anger
221. Blow over โ€“ pass without effect
222. Blue blood โ€“ noble birth
..
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223. Bolt from the blue โ€“ sudden shock
224. Bone of the bone โ€“ very close relation
225. Bore to tears โ€“ bore greatly
226. Born with silver spoon โ€“ born wealthy
227. Both ends meet โ€“ live within income
228. Bottleneck โ€“ obstruction
229. Break fresh ground โ€“ innovate
230. Break the back of โ€“ complete main part
231. Break the news โ€“ announce
232. Breathe one's last โ€“ die
233. Bring to light โ€“ reveal
234. Brush up โ€“ improve knowledge
235. Bull in a china shop โ€“ clumsy person
236. Burn one's boats โ€“ irreversible action
237. Burn one's fingers โ€“ suffer from meddling
238. Burnt child dreads fire โ€“ past trauma causes caution
239. Burst at seams โ€“ overcrowded
240. Butter both sides โ€“ benefit from both sides
241. By fits and starts โ€“ irregularly
242. By heart โ€“ from memory
243. By hook or crook โ€“ any means
244. By the skin of teeth โ€“ barely
245. Call a halt โ€“ stop
246. Call in question โ€“ doubt
247. Carrot and stick โ€“ reward and punishment
248. Carry coal to Newcastle โ€“ do unnecessary thing
249. Carry the day โ€“ be victorious
250. Cast aspersions โ€“ make derogatory remarks
251. Cast pearls before swine โ€“ give valuables to unappreciative
252. Catch as catch can โ€“ any way possible
253. Catch someone's eye โ€“ attract attention
254. Cheek by jowl โ€“ side by side
255. Clean bill of health โ€“ healthy or cleared
256. Clear as mud โ€“ not clear at all
257. Close fisted โ€“ stingy
258. Close shave โ€“ narrow escape
259. Cock and bull story โ€“ absurd tale
260. Cold comfort โ€“ poor consolation
261. Come a cropper โ€“ fail badly
262. Come to grief โ€“ suffer disaster
263. Come to light โ€“ become known
264. Cook someone's goose โ€“ ruin someone
265. Cool as cucumber โ€“ calm
266. Count one's chickens โ€“ be overconfident
267. Crocodile tears โ€“ fake tears
268. Crop up โ€“ appear unexpectedly
269. Cross the Rubicon โ€“ irreversible step
270. Cry over spilt milk โ€“ regret uselessly
271. Curry favour โ€“ ingratiate
272. Cut a dash โ€“ make fine impression
273. Cut and dried โ€“ decided beforehand
274. Cut off nose to spite face โ€“ self-destructive revenge
275. Cut the ground from under feet โ€“ remove support
276. Darken someone's door โ€“ visit unwelcome
277. Days are numbered โ€“ about to die/fail
278. Dead as a doornail โ€“ completely dead
279. Deadlock โ€“ standstill
280. Devil's advocate โ€“ person who argues for counterpoint
281. Die hard โ€“ change slowly
282. Dig one's grave โ€“ cause own failure
283. Dime a dozen โ€“ common
284. Dog days โ€“ hottest period
285. Don't give up day job โ€“ not skilled enough
286. Donkey work โ€“ hard boring part
287. Double edged sword โ€“ can harm or help
288. Down and out โ€“ destitute
289. Draw a blank โ€“ get no result
290. Draw long bow โ€“ exaggerate
291. Dream of something โ€“ not possible
292. Drift into something โ€“ enter casually
293. Drive a hard bargain โ€“ push for advantage
..
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294. Drop a line โ€“ write briefly
295. Eat crow โ€“ admit being wrong
296. Eat like a horse โ€“ eat a lot
297. Elbow grease โ€“ hard physical effort
298. End in smoke โ€“ fail
299. Even keel โ€“ stable
300. Every inch โ€“ completely

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**JAMB 2026 MOCK โ€“ TOP 100 REPEATED BIOLOGY QUESTIONS*

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of all living things?
A) Movement from place to place B) Ability to respire C) Possession of chlorophyll D) Ability to fly

2. The basic unit of life according to the cell theory is the
A) tissue B) organ C) cell D) system

3. The main difference between plant and animal cells is the presence of
A) nucleus B) cell wall and chloroplasts in plants C) mitochondria D) ribosomes

4. Which level of organisation comes immediately after tissue in living organisms?
A) cell B) organ C) system D) organism

5. Euglena is regarded as a link between plants and animals because it
A) has a flagellum only B) can carry out photosynthesis and also move freely C) has a cell wall D) is multicellular

6. The kingdom that includes organisms with rigid cell walls made of chitin is
A) Plantae B) Fungi C) Protista D) Monera

7. Which of the following is a prokaryote?
A) Amoeba B) Bacteria C) Euglena D) Paramecium

8. The process by which green plants manufacture their food is called
A) respiration B) photosynthesis C) transpiration D) digestion

9. In the ecological zones of West Africa, the zone with the highest rainfall is
A) Sudan savanna B) Guinea savanna C) Rain forest D) Sahel savanna

10. The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is
A) water B) sun C) green plants D) soil

11. Which of the following is a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
A) Temperature B) Light C) Predators D) Humidity

12. The relationship where both organisms benefit is known as
A) parasitism B) commensalism C) mutualism D) competition

13. The mode of nutrition in which organisms feed on dead and decaying matter is
A) autotrophic B) holozoic C) saprophytic D) parasitic

14. The organ responsible for excretion in earthworm is
A) kidney B) nephridium C) flame cell D) Malpighian tubule

15. Which of the following is a carnivore?
A) Grasshopper B) Lion C) Cow D) Rabbit

16. The process of breaking down food into simpler forms is
A) respiration B) digestion C) photosynthesis D) excretion

17. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants is
A) haemoglobin B) chlorophyll C) melanin D) xanthophyll

18. In humans, the organ that produces bile is the
A) liver B) pancreas C) stomach D) small intestine

19. The structure that prevents food from entering the windpipe during swallowing is the
A) epiglottis B) glottis C) oesophagus D) trachea


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20. Which of the following is a function of the xylem?
A) Transport of manufactured food B) Transport of water and mineral salts C) Storage of food D) Photosynthesis

21. The type of reproduction in Amoeba is
A) binary fission B) budding C) conjugation D) fragmentation

22. The male reproductive organ in flowering plants is the
A) stigma B) style C) anther D) ovary

23. Variation within the same species is caused by
A) mutation and sexual reproduction B) asexual reproduction only C) environmental factors only D) mitosis

24. The law of independent assortment was proposed by
A) Mendel B) Darwin C) Lamarck D) Watson

25. The theory that organisms develop new structures because of need is associated with
A) Darwin B) Lamarck C) Mendel D) Linnaeus

26. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ in humans?
A) Appendix B) Heart C) Lungs D) Kidney

27. The ecological zone in West Africa characterised by scattered trees and grasses is
A) rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) mangrove

28. The process by which carbon is returned to the atmosphere is
A) photosynthesis B) respiration C) transpiration D) nitrification
29. The conservation method that involves the protection of species outside their natural habitat is
A) in-situ conservation B) ex-situ conservation C) afforestation D) deforestation

30. Which of the following is a pollutant of water?
A) Oxygen B) Sewage C) Nitrogen D) Carbon dioxide

31. The vector for malaria is
A) housefly B) female Anopheles mosquito C) tsetse fly D) blackfly

32. The disease caused by the tsetse fly is
A) malaria B) sleeping sickness C) cholera D) typhoid

33. The part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination is the
A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus
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34. The hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters in males is
A) oestrogen B) testosterone C) insulin D) adrenaline

35. Which of the following is a deficiency disease?
A) Malaria B) Kwashiorkor C) Cholera D) Typhoid

36. The enzyme that digests starch in the mouth is
A) pepsin B) amylase C) lipase D) trypsin

37. The site of photosynthesis in a leaf is the
A) stomata B) chloroplast C) vacuole D) nucleus

38. The respiratory organ in insects is the
A) lung B) trachea C) gill D) skin

39. Which of the following is an example of a homotherm?
A) Lizard B) Bird C) Fish D) Frog

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40. The process of loss of water vapour from leaves is
A) respiration B) transpiration C) photosynthesis D) guttation

41. The blood group that is a universal donor is
A) A B) B C) AB D) O

42. The part of the kidney that filters blood is the
A) glomerulus B) ureter C) bladder D) urethra

43. Which of the following is a sex-linked trait?
A) Sickle cell anaemia B) Colour blindness C) Malaria D) Diabetes

44. The law of segregation was proposed by
A) Darwin B) Mendel C) Lamarck D) Watson and Crick

45. The ultimate source of genetic variation is
A) mutation B) mitosis C) meiosis D) fertilisation

46. The study of interactions between living organisms and their environment is
A) genetics B) ecology C) physiology D) taxonomy

47. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
A) Predators B) Temperature C) Parasites D) Competitors

48. The pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always
A) inverted B) upright C) spindle-shaped D) irregular

49. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms by bacteria is
A) nitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) denitrification D) ammonification

50. The endangered species are best protected by
A) hunting B) in-situ conservation C) ex-situ conservation D) deforestation

51. The causative agent of AIDS is
A) virus B) bacterium C) fungus D) protozoan

52. The hormone that regulates blood sugar level is
A) adrenaline B) insulin C) thyroxine D) oestrogen

53. Which of the following is a vector-borne disease?
A) Tuberculosis B) Malaria C) Cholera D) Tetanus

54. The part of the ear responsible for balance is the
A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) eustachian tube D) pinna

55. The mode of reproduction in Spirogyra is
A) binary fission B) conjugation C) budding D) fragmentation

56. The organ that stores bile in humans is the
A) liver B) gall bladder C) pancreas D) stomach

57. Which of the following is a saprophyte?
A) Mango B) Mushroom C) Cassava D) Maize

58. The process of cell division that produces gametes is
A) mitosis B) meiosis C) binary fission D) budding

59. The number of chromosomes in a human body cell is
A) 23 B) 46 C) 23 pairs D) 92

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60. A cross between two heterozygous individuals is called
A) test cross B) monohybrid cross C) back cross D) dihybrid cross

61. The theory of natural selection was proposed by
A) Lamarck B) Darwin C) Mendel D) Linnaeus

62. Which of the following is an example of adaptive coloration?
A) Green colour of leaves B) Camouflage in chameleon C) Red colour of flowers D) Yellow colour of banana

63. The ecological zone with the least rainfall in West Africa is the
A) rain forest B) Sahel savanna C) Guinea savanna D) Sudan savanna

64. The relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is neither helped nor harmed is
A) parasitism B) commensalism C) mutualism D) predation

65. The instrument used to measure the rate of transpiration is
A) potometer B) hygrometer C) anemometer D) barometer
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66. The hormone responsible for the โ€œfight or flightโ€ response is
A) insulin B) adrenaline C) thyroxine D) oestrogen

67. Which of the following is a water-borne disease?
A) Malaria B) Cholera C) Sleeping sickness D) Yellow fever

68. The site of protein synthesis in the cell is the
A) nucleus B) ribosome C) mitochondrion D) chloroplast

69. The type of nutrition in which organisms manufacture their own food is
A) holozoic B) autotrophic C) saprophytic D) parasitic

70. The organelle responsible for packaging and transport of materials in the cell is the
A) Golgi body B) lysosome C) endoplasmic reticulum D) vacuole

71. In humans, the exchange of gases takes place in the
A) trachea B) bronchioles C) alveoli D) bronchi

72. The process by which plants lose water through the stomata is
A) guttation B) transpiration C) evaporation D) respiration

73. Which of the following is a macro-nutrient required by plants?
A) Iron B) Nitrogen C) Zinc D) Copper

74. The part of the brain that controls voluntary actions is the
A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) medulla D) hypothalamus

75. The causative organism of typhoid fever is
A) virus B) bacterium C) fungus D) protozoan

76. The law of segregation states that
A) alleles separate during gamete formation B) genes are linked C) dominant traits always appear D) recessive traits never appear

77. The blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is the
A) pulmonary artery B) pulmonary vein C) aorta D) vena cava

78. Which of the following is an example of a reflex action?
A) Writing B) Withdrawing hand from hot object C) Reading D) Speaking

79. The type of skeleton in insects is
A) endoskeleton B) hydrostatic skeleton C) exoskeleton D) cartilaginous skeleton

80. The hormone that stimulates milk production in mammals is
A) prolactin B) oxytocin C) testosterone D) adrenaline


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81. The process of converting glucose to pyruvate is
A) Krebs cycle B) glycolysis C) electron transport chain D) fermentation

82. The ecological succession that starts on bare rock is
A) secondary succession B) primary succession C) climax community D) hydrosere

83. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Nitrogen D) Hydrogen

84. The instrument used to measure wind speed is
A) anemometer B) barometer C) hygrometer D) rain gauge

85. The type of placentation in which ovules are attached to the wall of the ovary is
A) axile B) parietal C) free central D) basal

86. The enzyme that coagulates milk in the stomach of infants is
A) pepsin B) rennin C) trypsin D) lipase

87. Which of the following is a flight adaptation in birds?
A) Hollow bones B) Heavy bones C) Teeth D) Scales
88. The study of fossils is called
A) ecology B) palaeontology C) genetics D) physiology

89. The part of the flower that receives pollen grains is the
A) stigma B) style C) ovary D) anther

90. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C is
A) rickets B) scurvy C) beriberi D) pellagra

91. In the food chain Grass โ†’ Grasshopper โ†’ Lizard โ†’ Hawk, the grasshopper is a
A) producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) tertiary consumer

92. The process of cell division in somatic cells is
A) meiosis B) mitosis C) binary fission D) budding

93. Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable resource?
A) Solar energy B) Petroleum C) Wind D) Water

94. The hormone that controls the metamorphosis in insects is
A) thyroxine B) ecdysone C) insulin D) adrenaline

95. The respiratory pigment in humans is
A) chlorophyll B) haemoglobin C) haemocyanin D) myoglobin

96. The type of fruit that develops from a single flower with many ovaries is
A) simple fruit B) aggregate fruit C) multiple fruit D) false fruit

97. The causative agent of tuberculosis is
A) virus B) bacterium C) fungus D) protozoan

98. The structure that protects the embryo in a seed is the
A) testa B) plumule C) radicle D) cotyledon

99. Oral: Which word has a different stress pattern from the others?
A) biology B) ecology C) physiology D) genetics

100. The writing is on the wall in an ecological context often means
A) danger of environmental degradation is imminent B) good news is coming C) nothing is written D) happy ending
..

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๐Ÿšจ๐‰๐€๐Œ๐ ๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ”: ๐€๐“๐“๐„๐๐“๐ˆ๐Ž๐ ๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ” ๐”๐“๐Œ๐„ ๐‚๐€๐๐ƒ๐ˆ๐ƒ๐€๐“๐„๐’ - ๐‡๐Ž๐– ๐˜๐Ž๐”๐‘ ๐„๐—๐€๐Œ๐ˆ๐๐€๐“๐ˆ๐Ž๐ ๐ˆ๐’ ๐’๐“๐‘๐”๐‚๐“๐”๐‘๐„๐ƒ.

Dear Aspirants preparing to sit for the 2026 UTME, please read this important information carefully. Understanding how the examination is structured will help you prepare better and manage your time effectively during the exam.

๐Ÿ–ฅ๏ธ ๐”๐“๐Œ๐„ ๐‚๐๐“ ๐’๐„๐’๐’๐ˆ๐Ž๐ ๐๐€๐“๐‚๐‡๐„๐’
The UTME CBT examination is conducted in four (4) batches daily.

๐€๐ฅ๐ฅ ๐ญ๐ก๐ข๐ง๐ ๐ฌ ๐›๐ž๐ข๐ง๐  ๐ž๐ช๐ฎ๐š๐ฅ, ๐ญ๐ก๐ž ๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ” ๐”๐“๐Œ๐„ ๐Œ๐š๐ข๐ง ๐„๐ฑ๐š๐ฆ๐ข๐ง๐š๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง ๐ข๐ฌ ๐ž๐ฑ๐ฉ๐ž๐œ๐ญ๐ž๐ ๐ญ๐จ ๐œ๐จ๐ฆ๐ฆ๐ž๐ง๐œ๐ž ๐จ๐ง ๐€๐ฉ๐ซ๐ข๐ฅ ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ”, ๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ”.

๐“๐ก๐ž ๐๐š๐ข๐ฅ๐ฒ ๐›๐š๐ญ๐œ๐ก๐ž๐ฌ ๐š๐ซ๐ž ๐ฌ๐œ๐ก๐ž๐๐ฎ๐ฅ๐ž๐ ๐š๐ฌ ๐Ÿ๐จ๐ฅ๐ฅ๐จ๐ฐ๐ฌ:
๐Ÿ•– *1st Batch: 7:00 AM*
๐Ÿ•˜ *2nd Batch: 9:00 AM*
๐Ÿ•› *3rd Batch: 12:00 PM*
๐Ÿ•’ *4th Batch: 3:00 PM*

๐‚๐š๐ง๐๐ข๐๐š๐ญ๐ž๐ฌ ๐ฐ๐ข๐ฅ๐ฅ ๐›๐ž ๐š๐ฌ๐ฌ๐ข๐ ๐ง๐ž๐ ๐ญ๐จ ๐š๐ง๐ฒ ๐จ๐Ÿ ๐ญ๐ก๐ž๐ฌ๐ž ๐›๐š๐ญ๐œ๐ก๐ž๐ฌ ๐๐ž๐ฉ๐ž๐ง๐๐ข๐ง๐  ๐จ๐ง ๐ญ๐ก๐ž๐ข๐ซ ๐ž๐ฑ๐š๐ฆ๐ข๐ง๐š๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง ๐ฌ๐ฅ๐ข๐ฉ.

๐Ÿ“– ๐’๐“๐‘๐”๐‚๐“๐”๐‘๐„ ๐Ž๐… ๐“๐‡๐„ ๐”๐“๐Œ๐„ ๐„๐—๐€๐Œ
The UTME consists of four (4) subjects with a total of 180 questions to be answered within 2 hours.

๐๐ซ๐ž๐š๐ค๐๐จ๐ฐ๐ง ๐จ๐Ÿ ๐๐ฎ๐ž๐ฌ๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง๐ฌ ๐š๐ง๐ ๐“๐ข๐ฆ๐ž ๐€๐ฅ๐ฅ๐จ๐œ๐š๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง:
๐Ÿ“˜ Use of English โ€“ 60 questions (40 minutes)
๐Ÿ“— Second Subject โ€“ 40 questions (27 minutes)
๐Ÿ“™ Third Subject โ€“ 40 questions (27 minutes)
๐Ÿ“• Fourth Subject โ€“ 40 questions (26 minutes)
๐Ÿงฎ ๐“๐จ๐ญ๐š๐ฅ: ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ–๐ŸŽ ๐๐ฎ๐ž๐ฌ๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง๐ฌ ๐ข๐ง ๐Ÿ๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ ๐Œ๐ข๐ง๐ฎ๐ญ๐ž๐ฌ (๐Ÿ ๐‡๐จ๐ฎ๐ซ๐ฌ)

๐Ÿ“š ๐๐จ๐ญ๐ž: 5-๐Ÿ๐ŸŽ ๐ช๐ฎ๐ž๐ฌ๐ญ๐ข๐จ๐ง๐ฌ ๐ฐ๐ข๐ฅ๐ฅ ๐œ๐จ๐ฆ๐ž ๐Ÿ๐ซ๐จ๐ฆ ๐ญ๐ก๐ž ๐‰๐€๐Œ๐ ๐ซ๐ž๐œ๐จ๐ฆ๐ฆ๐ž๐ง๐๐ž๐ ๐ง๐จ๐ฏ๐ž๐ฅ/๐ญ๐ž๐ฑ๐ญ.

โฑ๏ธ ๐“๐ข๐ฆ๐ž ๐“๐ข๐ฉ:
Candidates should aim to spend about 40 seconds per question to complete the exam within the allocated time....


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