Posting some important questions from today’s editorial.
Ready to answer?

Question 1 - The India Millennium Deposit scheme, used to attract foreign currency inflows, was launched in which year?

A. 1991
B. 1998
C. 2000
D. 2008
E. 2013

Answer – Option C
Explanation: The India Millennium Deposit (IMD) scheme was launched in 2000 by SBI to mobilize funds from NRIs during a foreign exchange crisis, thereby boosting India’s forex reserves.

Question 2 - Which of the following best describes the “policy paradox” with respect to RBI Forex interventions?

A. RBI is increasing interest rates while aiming to reduce inflation
B. RBI is restricting offshore markets while aiming for rupee internationalisation
C. RBI is promoting exports while controlling imports
D. RBI is reducing liquidity while encouraging bank lending
E. RBI is restricting onshore markets while aiming for rupee internationalisation

Answer – Option B
Explanation: The paradox lies in RBI restricting offshore market participation (to curb speculation), even though such markets are essential for promoting rupee internationalisation in the long run.

Question 3 - As part of its recent forex market measures, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) capped banks’ onshore Net Open Position (NOP) at which of the following levels?

A. $50 million
B. $75 million
C. $200 million
D. $150 million
E. $100 million

Answer – Option E
Explanation: RBI capped the onshore Net Open Position (NOP) of banks at $100 million to limit excessive exposure to foreign currency movements and curb speculative bets against the Rupee.

Question 4 - Consider the following situation in the forex market:

The exchange rate in the onshore market is ₹83/$, while in the offshore (NDF) market it is ₹85/$. A bank engages in arbitrage by buying and selling dollars across these markets. Which of the following represents the profit earned per dollar through this arbitrage?

A. ₹1
B. ₹2
C. ₹3
D. ₹5
E. No profit

Answer – Option B
Explanation: In arbitrage, the bank buys dollars at the lower price (₹83) in the onshore market and sells at the higher price (₹85) in the offshore market. The profit earned is the difference, i.e., ₹85 − ₹83 = ₹2 per dollar.

Question 5 - What is the minimum investment amount required for an investor in an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) in India?

A. ₹1 lakh
B. ₹10 lakh
C. ₹50 lakh
D. ₹1 crore
E. ₹25 lakh

Answer – Option D
Explanation: As per SEBI (AIF) Regulations, the minimum investment per investor is ₹1 crore. This threshold ensures participation by high-net-worth and sophisticated investors.

Question 6 - In which category of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) is the exposure to derivatives and complex trading strategies the highest, implying significantly higher risk?

A. Category I AIF
B. Category II AIF
C. Category III AIF
D. All categories have equal exposure
E. Only Category I & II

Answer – Option C
Explanation: Category III AIFs employ diverse and complex trading strategies, including significant use of derivatives, leverage, and short selling. This makes them the riskiest among AIF categories, unlike Category I and II, which have stricter investment norms and limited use of leverage.

Question 7 - Which of the following best explains the impact of increased gold demand on India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD)?

A. Increased gold imports lead to higher outflow of foreign exchange, widening CAD
B. Higher gold demand boosts exports, improving CAD
C. Increased gold demand reduces imports, lowering CAD
D. Gold demand has no impact on CAD as it is a domestic commodity
E. Increased gold demand strengthens the Rupee, reducing CAD

Answer – Option A
Explanation: India imports most of its gold; hence, a rise in gold demand increases imports, leading to higher outflow of foreign exchange. This widens the Current Account Deficit as import payments exceed export earnings, also putting depreciation pressure on the Rupee.

Question 8 - Which of the following are traded on stock exchanges?

A. AIF Category I units
B. AIF Category II units
C. AIF Category III units
D. REITs units
E. Only A and B

Answer – Option D
Explanation: REIT units are mandatorily listed and traded on stock exchanges, providing liquidity to investors. In contrast, AIFs (Categories I, II, and III) are privately pooled investment vehicles and are generally not traded on exchanges, with limited exit options through secondary transfers.

Question 9: What is considered the ideal NPK (Nitrogen:Phosphorus:Potassium) ratio in India for balanced fertiliser use?

A. 2:1:1
B. 4:2:1
C. 6:2.4:1
D. 8:3:1
E. 1:1:1

Answer – Option B
Explanation: The ideal NPK ratio in India is 4:2:1, reflecting balanced nutrient application. However, due to excessive use of nitrogen-based fertilisers (like urea), the actual ratio often deviates significantly, leading to soil degradation and reduced agricultural productivity.

Question 10: Under the AgriStack initiative, the Government aims to generate approximately how many Farmer IDs by the end of the 2026–27 financial year?

A. 5 crore
B. 8 crore
C. 10 crore
D. 11 crore
E. 15 crore

Answer – Option D
Explanation: As part of the AgriStack initiative, the government aims to create a comprehensive Farmer Registry with unique digital IDs. The target is to generate around 11 crore Farmer IDs by the end of FY 2026–27 to enable efficient and targeted delivery of agricultural services.

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C. 270 days credit period and 9 months repatriation window
D. 180 days credit period and 12 months repatriation window
E. 300 days credit period and 18 months repatriation window

Answer 1 – Option B
Explanation: RBI has extended the export credit period to 450 days and allowed exporters up to 15 months to realize and repatriate export proceeds. Other options mention incorrect combinations of timelines.

Question 2 - A disruption in the Red Sea shipping route has forced global vessels to take longer routes, increasing freight costs significantly. As a result, Indian exporters have started raising prices to maintain margins. However, this has led to reduced demand from international buyers, while domestic production levels have also started declining due to lower orders.

The above situation best illustrates which of the following concepts?

A. Domino Effect
B. Multiplier Effect
C. Ripple Effect
D. Liquidity Trap
E. Moral Hazard

Answer 2 – Option C
Explanation: The ripple effect refers to a situation where one event leads to multiple simultaneous impacts across different areas. Here, shipping disruption leads to higher costs, reduced demand, and lower production simultaneously, making Ripple Effect the correct answer.

Question 3: With reference to the term “Goldilocks period” in macroeconomics, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to a situation where economic growth is high while inflation remains low.
2. It represents an overheated economy with very high inflation and rapid growth.
3. It is considered an ideal condition for central banks as minimal policy intervention is required.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
E. 1, 2 and 3

Answer – Option B
Explanation: A Goldilocks period is characterized by high growth with low and stable inflation, making Statement 1 correct. It is not an overheated economy, so Statement 2 is incorrect. Such a scenario places the economy in a “sweet spot,” requiring minimal intervention from central banks, making Statement 3 correct.