Maxemo EMREE 26-27
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A 52y M with HTN and obesity presents with 12h of severe pain and swelling in the R knee and L ankle. T 37.9°C. The knee is erythematous, warm, and tender. What is the most appropriate next step?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
Serum uric acid
46%
Arthrocentesis
17%
Knee X-ray
17%
Start indomethacin
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 52y M with HTN and obesity presents with 12h of severe pain and swelling in the R knee and L ankle. T 37.9°C. The knee is erythematous, warm, and tender. What is the most appropriate next step?
💡 EXPLANATION:
Arthrocentesis is mandatory in acute hot joints to rule out septic arthritis, regardless of gout history. Synovial fluid analysis differentiates crystal-induced from septic arthritis. Serum uric acid is often normal during acute attacks.
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A 65 y/o M with T2DM and OA presents with acute, severe right knee swelling and erythema for 24h. T 37.4°C. The joint is warm with a large effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
Acute gouty arthritis
26%
Calcium pyrophosphate deposition
42%
Septic arthritis
21%
Osteoarthritis exacerbation
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 65 y/o M with T2DM and OA presents with acute, severe right knee swelling and erythema for 24h. T 37.4°C. The joint is warm with a large effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 EXPLANATION:
Septic arthritis is the primary differential for acute monoarthritis in diabetics due to immune suppression. Absence of fever is common in elderly patients and does not rule out infection. Immediate synovial fluid analysis is required to prevent joint destruction.
A 24 y/o M footballer twists his right knee, feeling a "pop" followed by locking. O/E: Knee is fixed in 20° flexion; passive extension is impossible. Marked tenderness is noted over the medial joint line. Ligament tests are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous Quiz
42%
Medial meniscus tear
26%
Anterior cruciate ligament tear
26%
Medial collateral ligament sprain
5%
Lateral meniscus tear
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 24 y/o M footballer twists his right knee, feeling a "pop" followed by locking. O/E: Knee is fixed in 20° flexion; passive extension is impossible. Marked tenderness is noted over the medial joint line. Ligament tests are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 EXPLANATION:
Mechanical locking (inability to extend) with focal medial joint line tenderness is characteristic of a displaced bucket-handle tear of the medial meniscus. ACL injuries typically present with immediate swelling and instability, not mechanical locking.
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A 19y/o F runner reports 3 weeks of aching retropatellar pain exacerbated by squatting, running downhill, and prolonged sitting. Exam reveals patellar crepitus but no effusion or instability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous Quiz
55%
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
32%
Patellar tendonitis
9%
Iliotibial band syndrome
5%
Medial meniscal tear
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 19y/o F runner reports 3 weeks of aching retropatellar pain exacerbated by squatting, running downhill, and prolonged sitting. Exam reveals patellar crepitus but no effusion or instability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 EXPLANATION:
Diagnosis is Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome (PFPS). Key features: young female runner, anterior knee pain, 'theater sign' (pain after sitting), and positive patellar grind test. Absence of joint line tenderness makes meniscal tear unlikely.
A 28y/o M presents with a deep laceration to the posteromedial right leg. He is unable to stand on his tiptoes and exhibits weak inversion and toe flexion, with anesthesia over the sole. Which nerve is injured?
Anonymous Quiz
45%
Tibial nerve
23%
Common peroneal nerve
27%
Superficial peroneal nerve
5%
Saphenous nerve
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 28y/o M presents with a deep laceration to the posteromedial right leg. He is unable to stand on his tiptoes and exhibits weak inversion and toe flexion, with anesthesia over the sole. Which nerve is injured?
💡 EXPLANATION:
The tibial nerve courses posteromedially behind the medial malleolus. Injury causes loss of plantarflexion (tiptoes), inversion, and toe flexion, plus sensory loss on the sole. Common peroneal injury affects dorsiflexion.
A 50 y/o F with a 30 pack-year smoking history is found to have an incidental 1.5 cm solid nodule in the right upper lobe on chest X-ray. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
Repeat chest X-ray in 3 months
68%
CT scan of the chest
9%
PET-CT scan
14%
Transthoracic needle biopsy
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 50 y/o F with a 30 pack-year smoking history is found to have an incidental 1.5 cm solid nodule in the right upper lobe on chest X-ray. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
💡 EXPLANATION:
CT chest is the gold standard for the initial characterization of a pulmonary nodule detected on X-ray. It provides necessary details on size, margins, and density to guide risk stratification. PET and biopsy are indicated only after CT assessment.
A 53 y/o asymptomatic postmenopausal woman presents for a routine visit. Her last Pap smear 2 years ago was normal. She had a normal screening colonoscopy at age 48. Exam is unremarkable. Which screening is indicated at this visit?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
DEXA scan
5%
Colonoscopy
62%
Mammography
29%
Pap smear
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 53 y/o asymptomatic postmenopausal woman presents for a routine visit. Her last Pap smear 2 years ago was normal. She had a normal screening colonoscopy at age 48. Exam is unremarkable. Which screening is indicated at this visit?
💡 EXPLANATION:
UAE guidelines recommend screening mammography every 2 years for women aged 40–69. Colonoscopy is valid for 10 years (next due at 58). Pap smear is indicated every 3–5 years (not due yet). DEXA screening generally begins at age 65 for average-risk women.
A 55 y/o healthy postmenopausal F requests osteoporosis screening. She has no history of fractures, steroid use, or smoking. BMI is 24 kg/m2. What is the most appropriate recommendation regarding a DEXA scan?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
Perform DEXA scan immediately
36%
Defer screening until age 65
28%
Defer screening until age 60
24%
Screen only if symptomatic
Maxemo EMREE 26-27
A 55 y/o healthy postmenopausal F requests osteoporosis screening. She has no history of fractures, steroid use, or smoking. BMI is 24 kg/m2. What is the most appropriate recommendation regarding a DEXA scan?
💡 EXPLANATION:
Routine DEXA screening is recommended for women ≥ 65 y/o. Women < 65 require screening only if fracture risk is increased (e.g., low BMI, steroid use, parental hip fracture). Since she has no risk factors, screening is deferred.
A public health study aims to compare the total burden of CVA in the UAE versus Nigeria. The researcher requires a single metric integrating both premature mortality and years lived with disability. Which measure is most appropriate?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
Incidence rate
17%
Case fatality rate
25%
Years of potential life lost
54%
Disability-adjusted life years
1