📌Here are 30 Most Important MCQs on the National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986

perfect for UGC NET Paper 1, PSTET, CTET, and other teaching exams.

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✅ National Policy on Education 1986 — 30 Important MCQs (With Answers)

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1. The National Policy on Education (NPE) was launched in the year—

A. 1964
B. 1968
C. 1986
D. 1992
Answer: C

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2. The NPE 1986 was modified in the year—

A. 1989
B. 1992
C. 2000
D. 1995
Answer: B

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3. The main objective of NPE 1986 was—

A. Free higher education
B. Equal opportunities in education
C. Universalisation of elementary education
D. Privatization of education
Answer: C

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4. “Education for All” is the motto of—

A. NPE 1968
B. NPE 1986
C. Kothari Commission
D. NEP 2020
Answer: B

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5. Operation Blackboard was introduced under—

A. NPE 1968
B. NPE 1986
C. NEP 2020
D. RTE 2009
Answer: B

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6. Operation Blackboard focuses on—

A. Teacher training
B. Providing essential facilities in primary schools
C. Improving higher education
D. Training principals
Answer: B

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7. NPE 1986 emphasized special focus on—

A. Women
B. SC/ST
C. OBC
D. Minorities
Answer: B

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8. NPE 1986 adopted the concept of—

A. Minimum levels of learning
B. National Curriculum Framework
C. Free laptops
D. New teaching languages
Answer: A

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9. NPE 1986 recommended the establishment of—

A. NCERT
B. UGC
C. NCTE
D. AICTE
Answer: C

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10. NPE 1986 called for strengthening—

A. Distance education
B. Teacher salaries
C. Universities
D. Private education
Answer: A

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11. Adult education programs were strengthened under—

A. NPE 1968
B. NPE 1986
C. NCF 2005
D. RTE 2009
Answer: B

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12. NPE 1986 emphasized “child-centered education” at—

A. Secondary stage
B. Higher education
C. Elementary stage
D. Adult literacy stage
Answer: C

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13. According to NPE 1986, teaching should shift from—

A. Teacher-centered to child-centered
B. Child-centered to teacher-centered
C. Modern to traditional
D. Classroom to home
Answer: A

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14. Which of the following was highlighted for improving science education?

A. New laboratories
B. National Literacy Mission
C. Operation Blackboard
D. Science Talent Scheme
Answer: A

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15. NPE 1986 recommended 6% of GDP expenditure on—

A. Defense
B. Education
C. Agriculture
D. Health
Answer: B

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16. NPE 1986 emphasizes education as—

A. A human right
B. A productivity enhancing force
C. A national burden
D. A political issue
Answer: B

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17. NPE 1986 introduced the concept of—

A. School Complex
B. Navodaya Vidyalayas
C. Model Schools
D. Edusat
Answer: B

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18. Navodaya Vidyalayas aim to—

A. Provide education for girls
B. Promote the gifted rural children
C. Provide free textbooks
D. Provide vocational training
Answer: B

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19. NPE 1986 made education a tool for—

A. Social and national integration
B. Privatization
C. Economic inequality
D. Employment generation only
Answer: A

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20. Minimum Levels of Learning (MLL) was launched in—

A. 1992
B. 1986
C. 1990
D. 1994
Answer: C

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21. NPE 1986 emphasized the education of—

A. Gifted children only
B. Children with disabilities
C. Rich students
D. Urban students only
Answer: B

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22. “Non-formal education” was promoted in—

A. NPE 1968
B. NPE 1986
C. NCF 2005
D. NEP 2020
Answer: B

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23. National Literacy Mission (NLM) was launched in—

A. 1988
B. 1986
C. 1992
D. 1980
Answer: A

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24. NPE 1986 proposes a restructured—

A. Examination system
B. Teacher education system
C. College affiliation system
D. Grading in universities
Answer: B

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25. NPE 1986 recommended autonomy for—

A. Schools
B. Colleges & Universities
C. State governments
D. Coaching institutes
Answer: B

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26. NPE 1986 recognized early childhood care as—

A. Optional
B. Essential
C. Unnecessary
D. Only for poor children
Answer: B

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27. NPE 1986 introduced the concept of—

A. National Testing Agency
B. Micro-teaching
C. Vocationalization of education
D. Digital learning
Answer: C

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28. The review committee for NPE 1986 was headed by—

A. Kothari
B. Acharya Ramamurti
C. Yashpal
D. Radhakrishnan
Answer: B

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29. NPE 1986’s Programme of Action was released in—

A. 1987

B. 1988
C. 1992
D. 1990
Answer: A

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30. NPE 1986 emphasized the need for—

A. Equality and social justice in education
B. Profit-based institutions
C. Coaching centers
D. Privatized school system
Answer: A

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📌30 important MCQs of Indian Polity frequently asked in previous year competitive exams (SSC, UPSC, State Exams), with options and answers:

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30 Important MCQs of Indian Polity (PYQ-Based)

With Options & Answers

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1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part IVA
Answer: B

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2. The idea of the Preamble has been borrowed from the Constitution of:

A. USA
B. UK
C. Canada
D. USSR
Answer: A

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3. In which year was the Constitution of India adopted?

A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1949
D. 1950
Answer: C

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4. The President of India is elected by:

A. Parliament only
B. Elected members of Parliament
C. Elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures
D. People of India
Answer: C

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5. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is:

A. Prime Minister
B. Vice-President
C. President
D. Home Minister
Answer: B

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6. Directive Principles of State Policy are:

A. Justiciable
B. Non-justiciable
C. Enforceable by courts
D. Fundamental duties
Answer: B

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7. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: C

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8. The concept of Fundamental Duties is borrowed from the Constitution of:

A. USSR
B. USA
C. UK
D. Japan
Answer: A

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9. Which article deals with the impeachment of the President of India?

A. Article 52
B. Article 61
C. Article 72
D. Article 356
Answer: B

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10. The minimum age to become a Rajya Sabha member is:

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 21 years
Answer: B

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11. Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Rajendra Prasad
D. Sardar Patel
Answer: B

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12. Which article declares India as a ‘Union of States’?

A. Article 1
B. Article 3
C. Article 5
D. Article 10
Answer: A

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13. Money Bill can be introduced only in:

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Both Houses
D. President’s assent
Answer: B

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14. Who administers the oath to the President of India?

A. Prime Minister
B. Vice-President
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Attorney General
Answer: C

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15. Which amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?

A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 61st
D. 52nd
Answer: C

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16. Fundamental Rights are suspended during:

A. National emergency
B. State emergency
C. President’s rule
D. Financial emergency
Answer: A

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17. Which article guarantees equality before law?

A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 32
Answer: C

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18. The concept of Judicial Review is taken from:

A. USA
B. UK
C. Ireland
D. Australia
Answer: A

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19. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right?

A. Right to Property
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom
D. Cultural & Educational Rights
Answer: A

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20. The first citizen of India is:

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Vice-President
D. Chief Justice
Answer: B

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21. The residuary powers in India lie with:

A. States
B. Union
C. Both
D. Judiciary
Answer: B

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22. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in which state?

A. Rajasthan
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Haryana
D. Gujarat
Answer: A

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23. Who presides over the joint sitting of both Houses?

A. Vice-President
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. President
Answer: C

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24. Which schedule contains anti-defection provisions?

A. 7th Schedule
B. 8th Schedule
C. 10th Schedule
D. 12th Schedule
Answer: C

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25. The minimum age to contest Lok Sabha election is:

A. 18
B. 21
C. 25
D. 30
Answer: C

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26. Right to Education (RTE) is a Fundamental Right under:

A. Article 19A
B. Article 20A
C. Article 21A
D. Article 22A
Answer: C

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27. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Lok Sabha Speaker
Answer: B

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28. Which part of the Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions?

A. Part XVIII
B. Part XII
C. Part XVII
D. Part IX
Answer: A

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29. The Union List contains how many subjects?

A. 66
B. 97
C. 52
D. 47
Answer: B

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30. Article 32 is known as:

A. Heart of the Constitution
B. Soul of the Constitution
C. Basic structure
D. Mini Constitution
Answer: B
(Article 32 is called the “Heart & Soul of the Constitution” by Dr.

📌Here are 10 MCQs on the Electricity chapter
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10 MCQs on Electricity (With Answers)

1. The SI unit of electric charge is:

a) Volt
b) Ohm
c) Coulomb
d) Ampere
Answer: c) Coulomb

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2. The rate of flow of electric charge is called:

a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Electric current
d) Electric power
Answer: c) Electric current

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3. The SI unit of resistance is:

a) Ampere
b) Ohm
c) Watt
d) Volt
Answer: b) Ohm

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4. According to Ohm’s law, V = IR. If R is doubled and V remains constant, current will:

a) Double
b) Become half
c) Become zero
d) Remain same
Answer: b) Become half

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5. Electric power consumed in a circuit is given by:

a) V/I
b) VI
c) IR
d) I/R
Answer: b) VI

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6. A wire of resistance 10 Ω carries a current of 2 A. The potential difference across it is:

a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) 40 V
Answer: c) 20 V
(Using V = IR = 2 × 10)

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7. If a 60 W bulb glows for 2 hours, the electrical energy consumed is:

a) 120 J
b) 120 Wh
c) 30 Wh
d) 60 J
Answer: b) 120 Wh

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8. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

a) Rubber
b) Plastic
c) Copper
d) Wood
Answer: c) Copper

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9. The resistance of a conductor depends on:

a) Length
b) Area of cross-section
c) Material
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

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10. A fuse in an electric circuit is connected in:

a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Either series or parallel
d) Across neutral wire only
Answer: b) Series

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📌Here are 10 new one-liner facts on Human Physiology,
🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️

10 One-Liners on Human Physiology
🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️


1. The liver can regenerate up to 70% of its tissue after damage.
2. Red blood cells have a lifespan of about 120 days before being destroyed in the spleen.
3. The sinoatrial (SA) node acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart.
4. The smallest functional unit of the kidney is the nephron.
5. The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance and coordinating voluntary movements.
6. The average adult lung contains about 300 million alveoli for gas exchange.
7. Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting mechanisms.
8. The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl) to aid in protein digestion.
9. Insulin lowers blood glucose levels by promoting its uptake into cells.
10. The longest bone in the human body is the femur, located in the thigh.

📌Here are 10 important one-liners on the Prime Minister of India:
🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️🕹️
1. The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union Government.
2. He/She is appointed by the President, usually the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha.
3. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.
4. He/She allocates portfolios to ministers and can reshuffle the Cabinet anytime.
5. The Prime Minister acts as the chief spokesperson of the government in Parliament.
6. He/She advises the President on all important appointments.
7. The Prime Minister is the link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
8. He/She represents India in various international forums and summits.
9. The Prime Minister can recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President.
10. He/She plays a key role in policy-making and overall administration of the country.

📌Here are 10 MCQs on Electron, Proton, Neutron and Electronic Configuration (First 20 Elements) with answers

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MCQs

Q1. Which sub-atomic particle has no electric charge?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Positron

Q2. The mass of a proton is approximately equal to the mass of:
A. Electron
B. Neutron
C. Positron
D. Photon

Q3. The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the number of:
A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Nucleons
D. Shells

Q4. Which particle is responsible for the chemical properties of an element?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Nucleus
D. Electron

Q5. The electronic configuration of Sodium (Na, atomic number 11) is:
A. 2, 6, 3
B. 2, 8, 1
C. 2, 7, 2
D. 2, 8, 2

Q6. Which of the following elements has a completely filled outermost shell?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Neon
D. Sodium

Q7. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the K-shell is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 2

Q8. How many neutrons are present in an atom of Calcium \left(^{40}_{20}\text{Ca}\right)?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 10

Q9. Which of the following electronic configurations represents Magnesium (atomic number 12)?
A. 2, 8, 1
B. 2, 7, 3
C. 2, 8, 2
D. 2, 6, 4

Q10. The electronic configuration of Chlorine (atomic number 17) is:
A. 2, 8, 7
B. 2, 7, 8
C. 2, 8, 8
D. 2, 6, 9

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Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. A

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📌Here are 10 one-liners on the Indian Map (useful for exams like SSC, CTET, Punjab exams, etc.):
1. India is located in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres.
2. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′ N) passes through the middle of India.
3. The Indian Ocean lies to the south of India.
4. Pakistan is located to the north-west of India.
5. China and Nepal lie to the north of India.
6. The Bay of Bengal is on the eastern side of India.
7. The Arabian Sea is on the western side of India.
8. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait.
9. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal.
10. The Lakshadweep Islands are located in the Arabian Sea.

📌Here are 10 important one-liners on Atoms and Molecules — crisp and exam-friendly 👌
1. An atom is the smallest particle of an element that retains its chemical properties.
2. A molecule is formed when two or more atoms chemically combine.
3. Law of Conservation of Mass states that mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
4. Dalton’s Atomic Theory explains that all matter is made up of indivisible atoms.
5. Atomic mass is the average mass of an atom compared to 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
6. Molecular mass is the sum of atomic masses of all atoms present in a molecule.
7. A mole is the amount of substance containing 6.022 \times 10^{23} particles.
8. Avogadro’s number represents the number of atoms or molecules in one mole of a substance.
9. Chemical formula shows the types and number of atoms present in a molecule.
10. Compounds are substances formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements in a fixed ratio.

*Combined Test (80 MCQs) in proper exam format —*

*👉Date- 10 feb 2026*

📘 FULL LENGTH TEST

Acid–Base–Salt (Class 10) + Introduction to India Geography (Class 9)

Time: 60 Minutes  Max Marks: 80

Name: ________________  Roll No.: ________  Date: ________

Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Each question carries 1 mark.
3. Choose the correct option (A/B/C/D).
4. No negative marking.

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Section A — Chemistry (Acids, Bases & Salts)

Q1–Q40
1. An acid is a substance that produces:
A. OH⁻ ions B. H⁺ ions C. Electrons D. Salt only
2. A base produces in aqueous solution:
A. H⁺ ions B. OH⁻ ions C. CO₂ D. H₂
3. Which is a strong acid?
A. Acetic acid B. Carbonic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Citric acid
4. Which is a weak acid?
A. HCl B. HNO₃ C. CH₃COOH D. H₂SO₄
5. pH of neutral solution is:
A. 0 B. 7 C. 14 D. 1
6. pH 3 solution is:
A. Basic B. Neutral C. Acidic D. Salt
7. pH 12 solution is:
A. Acidic B. Neutral C. Basic D. Salt
8. Indicator turning red in acid and blue in base:
A. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange C. Litmus D. Turmeric
9. Phenolphthalein is colourless in:
A. Neutral B. Acidic C. Basic D. Salt
10. Turmeric becomes reddish-brown in:
A. Acid B. Base C. Water D. Salt
11. Acidic solutions conduct electricity due to:
A. Molecules B. Ions C. Metals D. Solids
12. Acids react with metals to form:
A. CO₂ B. H₂ C. O₂ D. N₂
13. Correct reaction producing hydrogen gas:
A. Acid + Metal B. Acid + Base C. Acid + Salt D. Base + Metal
14. Acid + Carbonate gives:
A. Salt + Water B. Salt + CO₂ C. Salt + Water + CO₂ D. CO₂ only
15. Gas turning lime water milky:
A. H₂ B. CO₂ C. O₂ D. NH₃
16. Neutralisation reaction is:
A. Acid + Base B. Acid + Metal C. Salt + Water D. Base + Metal
17. Antacid contains:
A. NaOH B. Mg(OH)₂ C. HCl D. H₂SO₄
18. Tooth decay starts below pH:
A. 7 B. 6 C. 5.5 D. 4
19. Acidic soil treated with:
A. Lime B. Acid C. Salt D. CO₂
20. Basic soil treated with:
A. Lime B. Organic matter C. NaOH D. Soap
21. Vinegar contains:
A. Citric acid B. Acetic acid C. Lactic acid D. Formic acid
22. Lemon contains:
A. Acetic acid B. Citric acid C. Formic acid D. Oxalic acid
23. Curd contains:
A. Lactic acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulphuric acid D. Hydrochloric acid
24. Ant sting contains:
A. Citric acid B. Formic acid C. Lactic acid D. Oxalic acid
25. Bases feel:
A. Sour B. Bitter & soapy C. Sweet D. Neutral
26. Basic oxide is:
A. CO₂ B. SO₂ C. MgO D. NO₂
27. Acidic oxide is:
A. CaO B. Na₂O C. CO₂ D. MgO
28. Salt giving acidic solution formed from:
A. Strong acid + Strong base
B. Weak acid + Strong base
C. Strong acid + Weak base
D. Weak acid + Weak base
29. Common salt obtained from:
A. Neutralisation only
B. Sea water
C. Limestone heating
D. CO₂ reaction
30. Bleaching powder formula:
A. CaCl₂ B. CaOCl₂ C. NaClO D. CaCO₃
31. Bleaching powder prepared from:
A. CaCO₃ B. Ca(OH)₂ C. NaOH D. Mg(OH)₂
32. Baking soda is:
A. Na₂CO₃ B. NaHCO₃ C. CaCO₃ D. NH₄Cl
33. Washing soda is:
A. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O B. NaHCO₃ C. CaSO₄·2H₂O D. NaCl
34. Plaster of Paris is:
A. CaSO₄·2H₂O B. CaSO₄·½H₂O C. CaCO₃ D. CaCl₂
35. Common salt is:
A. NaHCO₃ B. Na₂CO₃ C. NaCl D. KClO₃
36. Gypsum is:
A. CaSO₄·2H₂O B. CaSO₄·½H₂O C. CaO D. CaCl₂
37. Used in glass, soap, paper industry:
A. Baking soda B. Washing soda C. Bleaching powder D. POP
38. Acid in water explained by:
A. Arrhenius B. Boyle C. Newton D. Avogadro
39. Dilution of acid means:
A. Acid + Acid B. Acid + Base C. Acid + Water D. Acid + Salt
40. Correct dilution method:
A. Water into acid B. Acid into water C. Fast mixing D. None

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Section B — Geography (Introduction to India)

Q41–Q80
41. India lies in:
A. Northern Hemisphere B. Southern C. Eastern D. Northern & Eastern
42. Latitudinal extent:
A. 0°–23½°N B. 8°4′N–37°6′N C. 10°–40°N D. 15°–30°N
43. Longitudinal extent:
A. 68°7′E–97°25′E B. 60°–90°E C. 70°–100°E D. 75°–95°E
44. Tropic of Cancer passes through:
A. South India B. Middle India C. North India D. Coast only
45. Tropic of Cancer latitude:
A. 0° B. 23½°N C. 66½°N D. 90°
46. Standard Meridian of India:
A. 82½°E B. 90°E C. 75°E D. 0°

47. IST ahead of GMT by:
A. 4 hrs B. 5 hrs C. 5½ hrs D. 6 hrs
48. East–west extent:
A. 1000 km B. 2000 km C. 2933 km D. 5000 km
49. North–south extent:
A. 3214 km B. 2933 km C. 1500 km D. 5000 km
50. India’s area:
A. 1.5 million B. 2.4 million C. 3.28 million D. 4.5 million sq km
51. India rank by area:
A. 5th B. 6th C. 7th D. 8th
52. Coastline length:
A. 6100 km B. 7516 km C. 8000 km D. 9500 km
53. Number of states:
A. 27 B. 28 C. 29 D. 30
54. Number of UTs:
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
55. Southernmost point of India:
A. Indira Point B. Kanyakumari C. Rameswaram D. Minicoy
56. Southernmost mainland point:
A. Indira Point B. Kanyakumari C. Port Blair D. Lakshadweep
57. Bay of Bengal islands:
A. Lakshadweep B. Andaman & Nicobar C. Maldives D. Sri Lanka
58. Arabian Sea islands:
A. Andaman B. Lakshadweep C. Java D. Fiji
59. Indian Ocean lies to:
A. North B. South C. East D. West
60. Arabian Sea lies to:
A. East B. West C. North D. South
61. Bay of Bengal lies to:
A. East B. West C. North D. South
62. India shares land border with:
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 countries
63. Himalayas act as:
A. Desert barrier B. Mountain barrier C. Coastal barrier D. River barrier
64. Northern Plains formed by:
A. Wind B. Lava C. Alluvial deposits D. Glaciers only
65. Peninsular Plateau made of:
A. Young mountains B. Old rocks C. Sand dunes D. Coral
66. Thar Desert located in:
A. J&K B. Rajasthan C. Assam D. Kerala
67. Indian desert called:
A. Sahara B. Great Indian Desert C. Gobi D. Kalahari
68. Central location helps in:
A. Volcanoes B. Trade routes C. Earthquakes D. Desert
69. Narrow land link to NE India:
A. Khyber B. Siliguri Corridor C. Bolan D. Karakoram
70. India–Sri Lanka separated by:
A. Gulf of Kutch B. Palk Strait C. Malacca D. Gibraltar
71. Highest peak (India commonly taught):
A. K2 B. Kanchenjunga C. Everest D. Nanda Devi
72. Physical divisions of India:
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
73. Coastal Plains located along:
A. East B. West C. Both D. South only
74. Lakshadweep islands origin:
A. Volcanic B. Coral C. River D. Glacial
75. Andaman & Nicobar origin:
A. Coral B. Volcanic/Tectonic C. River D. Desert
76. Standard Meridian passes near:
A. Kolkata B. Mirzapur C. Mumbai D. Chennai
77. Time difference in India due to:
A. Latitude B. Longitude C. Rainfall D. Altitude
78. India mainly has:
A. Polar climate B. Tropical monsoon C. Desert only D. Equatorial only
79. India called subcontinent due to:
A. Small size B. Large size & diversity C. Island D. Desert
80. Indian Ocean named after:
A. Sri Lanka B. Maldives C. India D. Indonesia

Here is the Answer Key (Q1–Q80) for the combined test:

Section A — Chemistry (Q1–Q40)
1-B
2-B
3-C
4-C
5-B
6-C
7-C
8-C
9-B
10-B
11-B
12-B
13-A
14-C
15-B
16-A
17-B
18-C
19-A
20-B
21-B
22-B
23-A
24-B
25-B
26-C
27-C
28-C
29-B
30-B
31-B
32-B
33-A
34-B
35-C
36-A
37-B
38-A
39-C
40-B

Section B — Geography (Q41–Q80)
41-D
42-B
43-A
44-B
45-B
46-A
47-C
48-C
49-A
50-C
51-C
52-B
53-B
54-C
55-A
56-B
57-B
58-B
59-B
60-B
61-A
62-C
63-B
64-C
65-B
66-B
67-A
68-C
69-B
70-B
71-B
72-B
73-Both A and B
74-B
75-A
76-B
77-B
78-B
79-B
80-C

*🕹️Mole concept MCQs*

🧿If 12 gram of carbon has x atoms, then the number of atoms in 12 grams of magnesium will be:
a) x
b) 2x
c) x/2
d) 1.5 x

🧿Which of the following correctly represents
360 gram of water ?
i 2 moles of H, ii) 20 moles of water iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water
iv) 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of water
(i) Only
(i) and (iv)
(ii) and (iii)
(ii) and (iv)


🧿THE MASS OF ONE MOLECULE OF A SUBSTANCE IS 4.65 * 10-23 G. WHAT IS ITS MOLECULAR MASS ? WHAT COULD THIS SUBSTANCE BE ?

🧿THE MASS OF ONE MOLECULE OF A SUBSTANCE IS 5.3138 * 10-23 G. WHAT IS ITS MOLECULAR MASS ? WHAT COULD THIS SUBSTANCE BE ?


🧿WHICH CONTAINS MORE MOLECULES, 10 G OF SULPHUR DIOXIDE (SO2) OR 10 G OF
OXYGEN (O2) ? (ATOMIC MASSES : S = 32 U ;
0 = 16 U)

Here are the correct answers with short explanations 👇

⸻

🧿 Q1. If 12 gram of carbon has x atoms, then the number of atoms in 12 grams of magnesium will be:
• Atomic mass of C = 12 u → 12 g = 1 mole
• Atomic mass of Mg = 24 u → 12 g = 0.5 mole

So, atoms in 12 g Mg = ½ of x

✅ Correct answer: (c) x/2

⸻

🧿 Q2. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water?
• Molar mass of H₂O = 18 g/mol
• 360 g ÷ 18 g/mol = 20 moles of water

Now check statements:

i) 2 moles of H → ❌ incorrect
ii) 20 moles of water → ✅ correct
iii) 6.022 × 10²³ molecules → ❌ (that is 1 mole)
iv) 20 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 1.2044 × 10²⁵ molecules → ✅ correct

✅ Correct answer: (ii) and (iv)

⸻

🧿 Q3. Mass of one molecule = 4.65 × 10⁻²³ g

Find molecular mass & substance

Molecular mass =
4.65 × 10^{-23} × 6.022 × 10^{23}

= 28 g/mol

A substance with molecular mass 28 is Nitrogen (N₂)

✅ Answer:
• Molecular mass = 28 g/mol
• Substance = Nitrogen (N₂)

⸻

🧿 Q4. Mass of one molecule = 5.3138 × 10⁻²³ g

Molecular mass =
5.3138 × 10^{-23} × 6.022 × 10^{23}

= 32 g/mol

A substance with molecular mass 32 is Oxygen (O₂)

✅ Answer:
• Molecular mass = 32 g/mol
• Substance = Oxygen (O₂)

⸻

🧿 Q5. Which contains more molecules:

10 g SO₂ or 10 g O₂ ?
• Molar mass of SO₂ = 32 + (16×2) = 64 g/mol
• Moles of SO₂ = 10/64 = 0.15625 mol
• Molar mass of O₂ = 32 g/mol
• Moles of O₂ = 10/32 = 0.3125 mol

More moles = more molecules

✅ Correct answer: 10 g of Oxygen (O₂)

⸻

📌Information regarding ports of india

Here are 30 MCQs on Land Utilization and Agriculture of India

⸻
👇👇👇👇👇👇👇👇👇👇

1. Land that is used for growing crops is called:
(A) Barren land
(B) Cultivable land
(C) Waste land
(D) Forest land

2. The total land area of India is approximately:
(A) 2.5 million sq km
(B) 3.28 million sq km
(C) 4.5 million sq km
(D) 5.2 million sq km

3. Land which cannot be used for cultivation is known as:
(A) Fallow land
(B) Barren and waste land
(C) Net sown area
(D) Cultivable waste land

4. Land left uncultivated for one or more agricultural years is called:
(A) Pasture land
(B) Fallow land
(C) Forest land
(D) Plantation land

5. The area sown with crops more than once in a year is known as:
(A) Net sown area
(B) Gross cropped area
(C) Fallow land
(D) Waste land

6. Which of the following is the main occupation of the people of India?
(A) Mining
(B) Agriculture
(C) Fishing
(D) Trade

7. Land used for grazing animals is called:
(A) Pasture land
(B) Forest land
(C) Barren land
(D) Plantation land

8. The land which is suitable for cultivation but not used for crops is called:
(A) Cultivable waste land
(B) Forest land
(C) Net sown area
(D) Permanent pasture

9. Which season is known as the main cropping season in India?
(A) Winter season
(B) Summer season
(C) Kharif season
(D) Spring season

10. Crops that are sown in June–July and harvested in September–October are called:
(A) Rabi crops
(B) Kharif crops
(C) Zaid crops
(D) Plantation crops

11. Crops that are sown in October–November and harvested in March–April are known as:
(A) Kharif crops
(B) Rabi crops
(C) Zaid crops
(D) Cash crops

12. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Wheat
(B) Gram
(C) Rice
(D) Mustard

13. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Cotton

14. The short cropping season between Rabi and Kharif is called:
(A) Zaid season
(B) Winter season
(C) Autumn season
(D) Spring season

15. Which of the following is a Zaid crop?
(A) Watermelon
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Cotton

16. The cultivation of crops with the help of rainfall is known as:
(A) Irrigated farming
(B) Dry farming
(C) Plantation farming
(D) Mixed farming

17. The cultivation of crops with the help of artificial supply of water is called:
(A) Irrigation
(B) Terrace farming
(C) Shifting cultivation
(D) Mixed farming

18. Growing only one crop on a piece of land year after year is known as:
(A) Mixed cropping
(B) Monoculture
(C) Crop rotation
(D) Multiple cropping

19. The practice of growing two or more crops on the same land at the same time is called:
(A) Crop rotation
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Plantation farming
(D) Dry farming

20. The practice of growing different crops in succession on the same land is called:
(A) Mixed cropping
(B) Crop rotation
(C) Plantation farming
(D) Terrace farming

21. Which type of farming is mainly practiced in hilly areas?
(A) Terrace farming
(B) Plantation farming
(C) Intensive farming
(D) Commercial farming

22. The farming in which large amounts of labour and capital are used is called:
(A) Extensive farming
(B) Intensive farming
(C) Plantation farming
(D) Shifting cultivation

23. Which crop is known as the staple food of India?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Barley

24. Tea is mainly grown in which type of farming?
(A) Plantation farming
(B) Mixed farming
(C) Dry farming
(D) Terrace farming

25. Which factor mainly affects agriculture in India?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Temperature
(C) Soil
(D) All of these

26. The cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called:
(A) Horticulture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Apiculture

27. The practice of growing crops and rearing animals together is known as:
(A) Mixed farming
(B) Plantation farming
(C) Shifting cultivation
(D) Terrace farming

28. Which crop is mainly grown in black soil?
(A) Cotton
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Barley

29. Agriculture in India mainly depends on:
(A) Monsoon rainfall
(B) River water
(C) Groundwater
(D) Canal irrigation

30. The increase in agricultural production with modern techniques is known as:
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Industrial Revolution

(C) White Revolution
(D) Blue Revolution


Ans key will be provided soon👍