Hormonal Evolution and Target Cell Interaction :

6.Which of the following best describes the main categories of hormones?
a. Proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids
b. Steroids, amines, and peptides
c. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
d. Enzymes, cofactors, and vitamins
Answer : b

7. Peptide hormones are derived from:
a. Cholesterol molecules
b. Fatty acid chains
c. Amino acid chains
d. Nucleotide sequences
Answer : c

8. Which statement about peptide hormones is correct?
a. They are the least common type of hormone
b. They are derived from cholesterol
c. They are the most numerous hormone type
d. They are exclusively single amino acids
Answer : c

9.Steroid hormones are characterized by:
a. Being derived from amino acids
b. Being derived from cholesterol
c. Being primarily water-soluble
d. Being short peptide chains
Answer : b

10. The evolution of hormone complexity suggests that:
a. Simple organisms have more diverse hormones
b. Higher life forms have fewer hormones
c. Hormone diversity increases with organism complexity
d. All organisms have the same number of hormones
Answer : c

11.Which hormones share a common α chain?
a. Insulin and glucagon
b. Estrogen and testosterone
c. TSH, FSH, and LH
d. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Answer : c

12.The β-chains in TSH, FSH, and LH:
a. Are all identical
b. Evolved from different ancestral genes
c. Arose from duplications of a common ancestral gene
d. Have no structural similarities
Answer : c

13. Amino acid-based hormones include all EXCEPT:
a. Modified amino acids
b. Peptide chains
c. Steroid molecules
d. Protein hormones
Answer : c

14.The heterodimer structure of certain peptide hormones involves:
a. Two identical chains
b. An α chain and a β chain
c. Two different β chains
d. Two different α chains
Answer : b

15.The diversity of hormones in organisms is primarily related to:
a. The size of the organism
b. The need for homeostatic regulation
c. The age of the organism
d. The habitat of the organism
Answer : b

16. Which feature is characteristic of peptide hormone families?
a. They all have unique α and β chains
b. They share structural similarities
c. They are all derived from cholesterol
d. They are all single amino acids
Answer : b

17. The evolution of hormone receptors suggests that:
a. All receptors are identical across species
b. Receptor diversity decreases in complex organisms
c. Receptors show structural similarities within families
d. Receptors are unrelated to hormone structure
Answer : c

18.The relationship between hormone structure and function indicates:
a. No correlation exists
b. Structure determines receptor specificity
c. All hormones have similar structures
d. Function is independent of structure
Answer : b

19. The common α chain in certain hormones suggests:
a. Random evolutionary development
b. Completely independent evolution
c. Shared evolutionary ancestry
d. Recent hormone development
Answer : c

20. Hormone diversity in higher organisms reflects:
a. Simpler regulatory needs
b. Random genetic mutations only
c. Greater homeostatic challenges
d. Decreased metabolic needs
Answer : c

21. What is the primary characteristic of steroid and thyroid hormone receptors that distinguishes them from peptide and amine hormone receptors?
A. They require ATP for activation
B. They are located on the cell surface
C. They are intracellular cytoplasmic receptors
D. They cannot cross cell membranes
Answer : c

22. In the hormone-receptor signaling pathway for steroid hormones, what occurs after the hormone-receptor complex moves to the nucleus?
A. The complex immediately breaks down
B. The complex forms either a homodimer or heterodimer
C. The complex stays in a monomeric form
D. The complex exits the nucleus
Answer : b

23. What type of receptors are involved in peptide and amine hormone signaling?
A. Nuclear receptors only
B. Cytoplasmic receptors only
C. GPCRs and tyrosine kinases
D. Ion channels exclusively
Answer : c

24. What is the final outcome of steroid hormone-receptor dimer binding to DNA?
A. Immediate cell death
B. Protein degradation
C. ATP production
D. Changes in gene transcription
Answer : d

25. Which statement best describes the relationship between hormone evolution and receptor evolution?
A. Hormones evolve independently of their receptors
B. Receptor evolution has no impact on hormone specificity
C. Changes in hormone structure require corresponding changes in receptor structure
D. Hormones prevent receptor evolution
Answer : c

Hormone Synthesis and Secretion :

26. What is the primary mechanism controlling the synthesis of peptide hormones?
A. Substrate availability
B. Gene transcription
C. Enzyme regulation
D. Post-translational modification
Answer : b

27. The initial form of a peptide hormone is called:
A. Pre-hormone
B. Pro-hormone
C. Pre-pro-hormone
D. Active hormone
Answer : c

28. Which statement about hormone precursors is correct?
A. They are always active
B. They are typically inactive
C. They cannot be cleaved
D. They only produce one type of hormone
Answer : b

29. How is the synthesis of amine hormones primarily controlled?
A. Through direct gene transcription
B. By regulating enzyme and substrate availability
C. Through post-translational modifications
D. By controlling hormone receptors
Answer : b

30. Multiple hormones can be derived from the same precursor due to:
A. Random mutations
B. Different receptor binding
C. Specific protease cleavage sites
D. Hormone inactivation
Answer : c

31. The process of converting pre-pro-hormone to pre-hormone involves:
A. Gene transcription
B. Specific proteases
C. Substrate availability
D. Receptor modification
Answer : b

32. The concept of "genetic economy" in hormone synthesis refers to:
A. Energy conservation in hormone production
B. Multiple hormones from one precursor
C. Minimal gene expression
D. Reduced hormone secretion
Answer : b

33. For steroid hormones, synthesis control primarily depends on:
A. Direct gene transcription only
B. Post-translational modifications
C. Enzyme and substrate availability
D. Pre-pro-hormone processing
Answer : c

34. The inactive nature of hormone precursors may serve as:
A. A storage mechanism only
B. A regulatory control mechanism
C. A waste product
D. An energy source
Answer : b

35. In thyroid hormones, precursor inactivity primarily affects:
A. Hormone synthesis rate
B. Gene transcription
C. Site of highest hormone availability
D. Enzyme production
Answer : c

Peptide Hormone Processing and Secretion :

36. What is the primary function of specific vesicles in peptide hormone processing?
A. To store mature hormones indefinitely
B. To cleave the pro peptide form into final active hormones
C. To initiate hormone synthesis
D. To degrade excess hormones
Answer : b

37. Which statement best describes post-translational processing of mature hormones?
A. It only occurs in the nucleus
B. It exclusively involves phosphorylation
C. It includes modifications like glycosylation that affect biological activity
D. It prevents hormone secretion from cells
Answer : c

38. What are the two main secretory pathways available for hormone export?
A. Lysosomal and endosomal pathways
B. Constitutive and regulated pathways
C. Nuclear and cytoplasmic pathways
D. Mitochondrial and peroxisomal pathways
Answer : b

39. What components are typically found within hormone-containing vesicles?
A. Only active hormones
B. Active hormones and cellular debris
C. The hormone and its inactive fragments
D. Exclusively inactive hormone precursors
Answer : c

40. How does the cellular machinery handle peptide hormone precursors?
A. Directly releases them without processing
B. Processes them similarly to proteins meant for export
C. Stores them indefinitely in the cytoplasm
D. Immediately degrades them
Answer : b

Secretion :

41. What is the primary mechanism for peptide hormone secretion?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Exocytosis of stored granules
D. Facilitated diffusion
Answer : c

42. Steroid hormones differ from peptide hormones in their storage. How are steroid hormones handled?
A. Stored in specialized granules
B. Not stored but secreted by diffusion
C. Stored in the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Stored in the Golgi apparatus
Answer : b

43. Where does steroid hormone synthesis primarily occur?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm
Answer : c

44. What protein is crucial for the first limiting step in steroid hormone synthesis?
A. Pregnenolone
B. Cholesterol
C. StAR protein
D. Protein kinase
Answer : c

45. What is the primary function of StAR protein?
A. Hormone synthesis
B. Cholesterol transport between mitochondrial membranes
C. Protein degradation
D. Hormone storage
Answer : b

46. Which factor does NOT regulate StAR protein activity?
A. Protein kinases
B. Phosphatases
C. Temperature
D. Intracellular signaling cascades
Answer : c

47. What is the precursor molecule for steroid hormone synthesis?
A. Pregnenolone
B. StAR protein
C. Amino acids
D. Glucose
Answer : a

48. How is peptide hormone secretion typically triggered?
A. By spontaneous diffusion
B. Through specific signals like neurotransmitters
C. By changes in temperature
D. Through passive transport
Answer : b

49. What characterizes pulsatile hormone secretion?
A. Continuous steady release
B. Random secretion patterns
C. Peak and trough patterns
D. Linear increase over time
Answer : c

50. What controls the timing of hormone pulses in the hypothalamus?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Membrane potential oscillators
C. Circadian rhythm only
D. StAR protein activity
Answer : b

51. How do hormone pulses affect target tissues compared to steady exposure?
A. They have identical effects
B. They convey different information
C. They have no effect
D. They only affect timing
Answer : b

52. What can influence hormone secretion patterns?
A. Only circadian rhythms
B. Only meal timing
C. Only yearly cycles
D. Multiple factors including circadian rhythms and meals
Answer : d

53. What is a therapeutic challenge with hormone replacement therapy?
A. Cost of hormones
B. Availability of hormones
C. Mimicking pulsatile secretion
D. Storage of hormones
Answer : c

54. What is the role of neurotransmitters in hormone secretion?
A. They inhibit all hormone release
B. They can trigger exocytosis
C. They only affect steroid hormones
D. They have no role in secretion
Answer : b

55. How is steroid hormone secretion controlled?
A. Through exocytosis
B. By kinetic influences on synthetic enzymes
C. Through membrane channels
D. By direct neural control
Answer : b

56. What time period can hormone secretion patterns span?
A. Only daily cycles
B. Only yearly cycles
C. Milliseconds to years
D. Only monthly cycles
Answer : c

57. What role does the hypophysial blood flow serve in hormone secretion?
A. Stores hormones
B. Synthesizes hormones
C. Transports releasing factors
D. Inhibits hormone release
Answer : c

58. Which statement about StAR protein is correct?
A. It is a stable, unchanging protein
B. It is involved in peptide hormone release
C. It is a labile protein regulated by signaling cascades
D. It only functions during stress
Answer : c

59. What characterizes the storage of peptide hormones?
A. They are not stored
B. They are stored in secretory vesicles
C. They are stored in mitochondria
D. They are stored in nuclei
Answer : b

60. How does stress affect steroid hormone synthesis?
A. It has no effect
B. It affects StAR protein activity
C. It only affects storage
D. It prevents synthesis
Answer : b

Hormone Transport in Blood :

61. Which of the following best describes the primary role of plasma carriers in hormone transport?
A. They only facilitate hormone degradation
B. They serve as a reservoir of active hormones
C. They serve as a reservoir of inactive hormones
D. They exclusively transport steroid hormones
Answer : c

62. What is the main characteristic of catecholamine and peptide hormones in plasma?
A. They require specific binding proteins
B. They are hydrophobic
C. They are water soluble
D. They only exist in bound form
Answer : c

63. Which protein is responsible for binding testosterone and 17β-estradiol?
A. Transcortin
B. Steroid Binding Globulin (SBG)
C. Albumin
D. Thyroid Binding Globulin
Answer : b

64. What is the biologically active form of hormones in target tissues?
A. Protein-bound hormones
B. Free hormones
C. Modified hormones
D. Degraded hormones
Answer : b

65. Which factor does NOT influence circulating hormone levels?
A. Rate of secretion
B. Blood pH
C. Nature of secretion
D. Rate of degradation
Answer : b

66. What happens to steroid hormones bound to Steroid Binding Proteins (SBP)?
A. They become immediately active
B. They are protected from urinary loss
C. They are rapidly degraded
D. They directly enter cells
Answer : b

67. Which hormones bind to Transcortin?
A. Testosterone and estradiol
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Progesterone and cortisol
D. Catecholamines
Answer : c

68. How do carrier proteins affect hormone half-life?
A. They decrease hormone stability
B. They increase degradation rate
C. They protect hormones from degradation
D. They accelerate hormone clearance
Answer : c

69. What is the relationship between bound and free hormones in plasma?
A. No relationship exists
B. They are in equilibrium
C. Bound forms always dominate
D. Free forms always dominate
Answer : b

70. Which statement about steroid hormones is correct?
A. They are hydrophilic
B. They circulate mostly unbound
C. They are hydrophobic
D. They don't need carrier proteins
Answer : c

71. What is a key characteristic of hormone feedback regulation?
A. Only bound hormones can provide feedback
B. Only free hormones can provide feedback
C. All hormone forms provide equal feedback
D. Feedback is independent of hormone form
Answer : b

72. Which organ synthesizes Steroid Binding Proteins (SBP)?
A. Kidney
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Adrenal glands
Answer : c

73. How do plasma carriers affect hormone distribution?
A. They increase hormone degradation
B. They restrict hormone access to certain sites
C. They eliminate all hormone reserves
D. They prevent hormone binding to receptors
Answer : b

74. What can affect hormone binding protein levels?
A. Only genetic factors
B. Only dietary factors
C. Certain medications
D. Only exercise
Answer : c

75. Which factor influences hormone bioavailability?
A. Only secretion rate
B. Only binding protein levels
C. Only degradation rate
D. All of the above
Answer : d

76. What role do anatomic relationships play in hormone regulation?
A. No significant role
B. They affect hormone synthesis only
C. They can affect hormone degradation timing
D. They only impact hormone storage
Answer : c

77. How do carrier proteins affect hormone solubility?
A. They decrease hormone solubility
B. They have no effect on solubility
C. They increase lipid-based hormone solubility
D. They only affect water-soluble hormones
Answer : c

78. What is a characteristic of pulsatile hormone secretion?
A. It maintains constant hormone levels
B. It creates fluctuating hormone levels
C. It prevents hormone binding
D. It increases hormone degradation
Answer : b

79. Which statement about hormone binding proteins is correct?
A. They bind only one specific hormone
B. Some can bind multiple hormones
C. They only exist in the liver
D. They only function in hormone synthesis
Answer : b

80. What happens to some hormones in the pulmonary circulation?
A. They are activated
B. They are destroyed
C. They are synthesized
D. They are stored
Answer : b

Hormone Action :

81. Which of the following best describes the primary function of hormones in the body?
A. They only regulate metabolism
B. They maintain homeostasis through various mechanisms
C. They only affect cell growth
D. They exclusively control ion channels
Answer : b

82. Hydrophilic hormones primarily work by:
A. Binding to nuclear receptors
B. Directly entering cells
C. Binding to cell surface receptors
D. Modifying DNA structure
Answer : c

83. Which of the following hormones is NOT considered a key contributor to homeostasis?
A. Cortisol
B. Insulin
C. Melatonin
D. Vasopressin
Answer : c

84. The GPCR family of receptors is most commonly associated with:
A. Steroid hormones
B. Thyroxine
C. Peptides and catecholamines
D. Nuclear hormones
Answer : c

85. Hydrophobic hormones such as steroids and thyroxine mainly:
A. Bind to cell membrane receptors
B. Act through nuclear receptors
C. Activate ion channels directly
D. Work through cytoplasmic enzymes
Answer : b

86. In nuclear receptor action, transcriptional co-activators:
A. Always inhibit gene expression
B. Have no effect on gene transcription
C. Stimulate gene transcription
D. Only work with steroid hormones
Answer : c

87. The wider dynamic range of gene regulation is associated with:
A. Direct stimulation of transcription
B. Dislodging of transcriptional co-repressor
C. Membrane receptor activation
D. Hormone degradation
Answer : b

88. Feedback regulation in the endocrine system primarily involves:
A. Target cell response affecting the endocrine organ
B. Hormones affecting only one type of tissue
C. Unidirectional hormone signaling
D. Random hormone release
Answer : a

89. Which feedback mechanism is less common in endocrine regulation?
A. Negative feedback
B. Positive feedback
C. Mixed feedback
D. Lateral feedback
Answer : b

90. Parturition (delivery) is an example of:
A. Negative feedback
B. Positive feedback
C. Neutral feedback
D. Reverse feedback
Answer : b

91. In evaluating thyroid function, a high TSH level typically indicates:
A. Normal thyroid function
B. Primary thyroid gland defect
C. Pituitary gland problem
D. Hypothalamus dysfunction
Answer : b

92. Normal TSH levels with symptoms of hypothyroidism suggest:
A. Primary thyroid defect
B. Anterior pituitary problem
C. Normal endocrine function
D. Adrenal dysfunction
Answer : b

93. The type of hormone receptor system that typically provides the fastest response is:
A. Nuclear receptors
B. Cell surface receptors
C. Intracellular receptors
D. Cytoplasmic receptors
Answer : b

94. Which statement about negative feedback is correct?
A. It enhances the original stimulus
B. It is less common than positive feedback
C. It dampens the initial stimulus
D. It only occurs in the thyroid system
Answer : c

95. Catecholamines are classified as:
A. Hydrophobic hormones
B. Nuclear hormones
C. Hydrophilic hormones
D. Steroid hormones
Answer : c

96. The endocrine system maintains steady state primarily through:
A. Positive feedback loops
B. Network of feedback responses
C. Single hormone action
D. Direct neural control
Answer : b

97. Nuclear receptors that directly stimulate transcription:
A. Always require co-repressors
B. Cannot be regulated
C. Work through co-activator binding
D. Only function with steroid hormones
Answer : c

98. The diagnostic strategy for endocrine disorders often relies on:
A. Only measuring hormone levels
B. Physical examination alone
C. Feedback control loops
D. Random sampling
Answer : c

99. Which characteristic is common to all hormones?
A. They all use the same type of receptor
B. They all affect homeostasis to some degree
C. They all work through nuclear receptors
D. They all use positive feedback
Answer : b

100. The primary difference between hydrophilic and hydrophobic hormones is:
A. Their chemical structure
B. Their receptor location
C. Their effect on metabolism
D. Their synthesis location
Answer : b

Introduction
Hormonal evolution
target cell interaction
Hormone Synthesis & Secretion
Peptide Hormone Processing
Secretion
Hormone transport in blood
Hormone Action

Pharmacognocy - Lecture 1 ↓

📍1. What is Pharmacognosy?
- A) The study of synthetic drugs.
- B) The study of natural drugs derived from plants, animals, and other natural sources.
- C) The study of chemical synthesis of drugs.
- D) The study of drug delivery systems.

Answer: B) The study of natural drugs derived from plants, animals, and other natural sources.

2. Which ancient civilization used clay models of the human body and documented medicinal plants?
- A) Greeks
- B) Egyptians
- C) Babylonians
- D) Romans

Answer: C) Babylonians

3. Who documented around 600 medicinal plants in 780 A.D.?
- A) Hippocrates
- B) Dioscorides
- C) Galen
- D) Avicenna

Answer: B) Dioscorides

4. Which of the following is NOT a role of natural products in modern medicine?
- A) Providing drugs that are difficult to synthesize.
- B) Serving as prototypes for synthetic drugs.
- C) Replacing all synthetic drugs.
- D) Supplying compounds that can be modified to reduce toxicity.

Answer: C) Replacing all synthetic drugs.

5. What is a "crude drug"?
- A) A synthetic drug with no natural origin.
- B) A natural substance from plants or animals that has only been collected and dried.
- C) A chemically modified natural product.
- D) A drug that is no longer used in modern medicine.

Answer: B) A natural substance from plants or animals that has only been collected and dried.

6. Which classification system arranges drugs based on their plant parts (e.g., leaves, roots)?
- A) Alphabetical
- B) Taxonomic
- C) Morphological
- D) Pharmacological

Answer: C) Morphological

7. Why is the timing of plant collection important?
- A) To ensure the plant is fully grown.
- B) To maximize the quality and quantity of active constituents.
- C) To avoid insects and pests.
- D) To reduce the cost of cultivation.

Answer: B) To maximize the quality and quantity of active constituents.

8. What is the purpose of drying crude drugs?
- A) To increase the weight of the drug.
- B) To remove moisture and prevent spoilage.
- C) To enhance the color of the drug.
- D) To make the drug more palatable.

Answer: B) To remove moisture and prevent spoilage.

9. Which of the following is a key factor in the storage of crude drugs?
- A) Exposure to sunlight.
- B) High humidity.
- C) Proper temperature control.
- D) All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above.

10. Which of the following is an example of a natural drug that is difficult to synthesize?
- A) Aspirin
- B) Vincristine
- C) Paracetamol
- D) Ibuprofen

Answer: B) Vincristine

11. What is the primary focus of Pharmacognosy?
- A) Synthetic drugs.
- B) Plant materials and some animal products.
- C) Chemical synthesis of drugs.
- D) Drug delivery systems.

Answer: B) Plant materials and some animal products.

12. Which of the following is an example of a drug classified by its pharmacological action?
- A) Aloe vera (used for skin conditions).
- B) Digitalis (used for heart conditions).
- C) Cinnamon (used as a spice).
- D) Beeswax (used in cosmetics).

Answer: B) Digitalis (used for heart conditions).

13. What is the main reason for controlling moisture during drug storage?
- A) To increase the weight of the drug.
- B) To prevent microbial growth and decomposition of active constituents.
- C) To enhance the aroma of the drug.
- D) To make the drug easier to transport.

Answer: B) To prevent microbial growth and decomposition of active constituents.

14. Which of the following is an example of a natural drug that serves as a prototype for synthetic drugs?**
- A) Vincristine
- B) Cocaine (for Procaine)
- C) Taxol
- D) Aloe vera

Answer: B) Cocaine (for Procaine)

15. What is the term for the study of the use of plant extracts as medicines or health-promoting agents?
A) Pharmacology
B) Phytotherapy
C) Pharmacognosy
D) Toxicology

Answer:B) Phytotherapy

📍16. Which of the following is an example of an "unorganized drug"?
- A) Leaves
- B) Roots
- C) Gums
- D) Flowers

Answer: C) Gums

---

### 17. What is the primary reason for drying drugs at moderate temperatures?
- A) To encourage enzymatic action.
- B) To prevent the loss of volatile oils.
- C) To reduce the drying time.
- D) To improve the color of the drug.

Answer: A) To encourage enzymatic action.

---

### 18. Which of the following is an example of a drug that should be collected during summer for maximum active constituents?
- A) Ephedra
- B) Digitalis
- C) Camphor
- D) Ergot

Answer: A) Ephedra

---

### 19. What is the ideal temperature range for storing most crude drugs to prevent microbial growth?
- A) 20-30°C
- B) 1-5°C
- C) 10-15°C
- D) 30-40°C

Answer: B) 1-5°C

---

### 20. Which of the following is an example of a drug classified by its chemical constituents?
- A) Alkaloids (e.g., morphine)
- B) Leaves (e.g., senna)
- C) Flowers (e.g., chamomile)
- D) Roots (e.g., ginseng)

Answer: A) Alkaloids (e.g., morphine)

---

### 21. What is the main disadvantage of the alphabetical classification of drugs?
- A) It is too complex.
- B) It does not show relationships between drugs.
- C) It is based on chemical constituents.
- D) It is not used in pharmacopeias.

Answer: B) It does not show relationships between drugs.

---

### 22. Which of the following is an example of a drug that loses its aroma if not dried properly?
- A) Clove
- B) Digitalis
- C) Ergot
- D) Camphor

Answer: A) Clove

---

### 23. What is the primary purpose of replacing air in storage containers with inert gases like nitrogen?
- A) To increase the weight of the drug.
- B) To prevent oxidation of active constituents.
- C) To enhance the aroma of the drug.
- D) To reduce the cost of storage.

Answer: B) To prevent oxidation of active constituents.

---

### 24. Which of the following is an example of a drug that is best collected from old trees?
- A) Atropa belladonna
- B) Cinnamomum camphora
- C) Ephedra
- D) Senna

Answer: B) Cinnamomum camphora

---

### 25. What is the main reason for rejecting discolored or insect-attacked plant parts during collection?
- A) They are difficult to dry.
- B) They may contain reduced active constituents.
- C) They are more expensive to process.
- D) They are harder to store.

Answer: B) They may contain reduced active constituents.

---

### 26. Which of the following is an example of a drug that is affected by enzymatic reactions during storage?
- A) Digitalis leaves
- B) Clove
- C) Camphor
- D) Beeswax

Answer: A) Digitalis leaves

---

### 27. What is the primary reason for using solar dryers in rural tropical areas?
- A) They are cheaper than artificial heat dryers.
- B) They are faster than open-air drying.
- C) They are more effective in high humidity.
- D) They are easier to maintain.

Answer: A) They are cheaper than artificial heat dryers.

### 28. Which of the following is an example of a drug that is classified as an "official drug"?
- A) Codeine 
- B) A herbal remedy not listed in pharmacopeias. 
- C) A synthetic drug. 
- D) A drug no longer in use. 

Answer: A) Codeine 

---

### 29. What is the main reason for drying aromatic drugs quickly?
- A) To retain their color. 
- B) To retain their aroma. 
- C) To prevent enzymatic reactions. 
- D) To reduce moisture content. 

Answer: B) To retain their aroma.

30. Which of the following is an example of a drug that is classified by its therapeutic use?**
- A) Aloe vera (for skin conditions). 
- B) Digitalis (for heart conditions). 
- C) Cinnamon (as a spice). 
- D) Beeswax (for cosmetics). 

Answer: B) Digitalis (for heart conditions).

Pharmacognocy - Lecture 2 ↓

📍Primary Factors of Drug Deterioration :

1. What is the typical moisture content in air-dried drugs?
- A) 5-7%
- B) 10-12%
- C) 15-20%
- D) 20-25%
- Answer: B) 10-12%

2. Which drug is mentioned as having sufficient moisture to activate enzymes leading to glycoside decomposition?
- A) Squill
- B) Digitalis
- C) Cod liver oil
- D) Tragacanth
- Answer: B) Digitalis

3. What happens to powdered squill when it absorbs moisture?
- A) It becomes more potent
- B) It turns into a sticky mass
- C) It loses its active constituents
- D) It becomes more volatile
- Answer: B) It turns into a sticky mass

4. How does an increase in temperature affect enzyme activity in drugs?
- A) It decreases enzyme activity
- B) It has no effect on enzyme activity
- C) It accelerates enzyme activity
- D) It denatures enzymes permanently
- Answer: C) It accelerates enzyme activity

5. What is the effect of high temperature on volatile oils in drugs?
- A) It increases their potency
- B) It causes loss of volatile oils
- C) It stabilizes the oils
- D) It has no effect
- Answer: B) It causes loss of volatile oils

6. What is the effect of direct sunlight on cod liver oil?
- A) It increases vitamin content
- B) It causes decomposition of vitamins
- C) It stabilizes the oil
- D) It has no effect
- Answer: B) It causes decomposition of vitamins

7. What is the effect of oxygen on volatile oils?
- A) It stabilizes them
- B) It causes resinification
- C) It increases their potency
- D) It has no effect
- Answer: B) It causes resinification

📍Secondary Factors of Drug Deterioration

8. Which of the following moulds is commonly associated with deteriorated drugs?
- A) Rhizopus
- B) Aspergillus
- C) Candida
- D) Saccharomyces
- Answer: A) Rhizopus

9. What is the primary indication of mould presence in deteriorated drugs?
- A) Change in color
- B) Characteristic mass of hyphae and smell
- C) Increased potency
- D) Loss of moisture
- Answer: B) Characteristic mass of hyphae and smell

10. Which bacteria are tested for in drugs like digitalis and gelatin?
- A) Escherichia coli and Salmonellae
- B) Staphylococcus aureus
- C) Bacillus subtilis
- D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Answer: A) Escherichia coli and Salmonellae

11. Why do dried plants contain viable bacteria and mould spores?
- A) They are added during processing
- B) They are naturally present in variable amounts
- C) They are introduced during storage
- D) They are part of the drug's active ingredients
- Answer: B) They are naturally present in variable amounts

12. What is the largest order of insects in the animal kingdom?
- A) Diptera (flies)
- B) Lepidoptera (butterflies)
- C) Coleoptera (beetles)
- D) Hymenoptera (ants, bees)
- Answer: C) Coleoptera (beetles)

13. How many species of beetles are associated with stored foods and drugs?
- A) 100
- B) 250
- C) 600
- D) 1000
- Answer: C) 600

14. What distinguishes Arachnida (mites) from true insects?
- A) They have six legs
- B) They have eight legs and no antennae
- C) They have wings
- D) They have antennae
- Answer: B) They have eight legs and no antennae

📍General Questions on Drug Deterioration

15. What is the main cause of drug deterioration?
- A) Exposure to light
- B) Presence of oxygen
- C) Action of bacteria, moulds, mites, and insects
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is NOT a primary factor in drug deterioration?
- A) Moisture content
- B) Temperature
- C) Light
- D) Moulds
- Answer: D) Moulds

17. What is the effect of moisture on powdered squill?
    - A) It becomes more potent
    - B) It turns into a sticky mass
    - C) It loses its active constituents
    - D) It becomes more volatile
    - Answer: B) It turns into a sticky mass

18. What is the effect of high temperature on absorbent cotton-wool?
    - A) It increases absorbency
    - B) It causes reorientation of fatty material, leading to lower absorbency
    - C) It has no effect
    - D) It makes it more durable
    - Answer: B) It causes reorientation of fatty material, leading to lower absorbency

19. What is the role of pharmacopoeias in relation to deteriorated drugs?
    - A) They encourage the use of deteriorated drugs
    - B) They set limits for viable aerobic counts in drugs
    - C) They do not regulate drug quality
    - D) They promote the use of mouldy drugs
    - Answer: B) They set limits for viable aerobic counts in drugs

20. What is the main reason for excluding deteriorated drugs from national pharmacopoeias?
    - A) They are too expensive
    - B) They lose their therapeutic value
    - C) They are difficult to store
    - D) They are not available in large quantities
    - Answer: B) They lose their therapeutic value

Pharmacognocy - Lecture 3↓

📍1. What is the first step in ensuring the quality of plant material for extraction?
A. Drying the plant material
B. Properly authenticating the plant material
C. Powdering the plant material
D. Homogenizing the plant material

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is NOT a factor in choosing an extraction procedure?
A. The nature of the plant material
B. The component to be isolated
C. The color of the plant material
D. The solvent to be used

Answer: C

3. What is the general solvent used for many plant constituents?
A. Ether
B. Chloroform
C. Alcohol
D. Water

Answer: C

4. What is the term for the undissolved portion of the drug after extraction?
A. Extract
B. Marc
C. Solvent
D. Residue

Answer: B

5. Which of the following is a cold extraction method?
A. Digestion
B. Decoction
C. Maceration
D. Soxhlet extraction

Answer: C

6. In maceration, how long is the plant material typically left in the solvent?
A. 1 hour
B. 3 days
C. 1 day
D. 6 hours

Answer: B

7. Which method involves wetting the plant material with solvent and allowing it to percolate for 24 hours?
A. Maceration
B. Percolation
C. Digestion
D. Infusion

Answer: B

8. What is the purpose of gentle heat in digestion?
A. To evaporate the solvent
B. To increase the solubility of active constituents
C. To sterilize the plant material
D. To dry the plant material

Answer: B

9. Which method is used for water-soluble and heat-stable substances?
A. Infusion
B. Decoction
C. Maceration
D. Percolation

Answer: B

10. What is the main advantage of Soxhlet extraction?
A. It is a cold method
B. It is a continuous extraction method
C. It uses water as the solvent
D. It is faster than maceration

Answer: B

11. How long does ordinary reflux extraction typically take?
A. 1-2 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 6-8 hours
D. 10-12 hours

Answer: C

12. Which method is used to extract volatile oils?
A. Soxhlet extraction
B. Steam distillation
C. Maceration
D. Percolation

Answer: B

13. Which of the following drugs would require percolation for extraction?
A. Soft and parenchymatous drugs
B. Hard and tough drugs
C. Unorganized drugs
D. Unpowderable drugs

Answer: B

14. Which extraction method is suitable for drugs with little therapeutic value?
A. Percolation
B. Maceration
C. Soxhlet extraction
D. Steam distillation

Answer: B

15. Which factor is NOT considered when choosing an extraction process?
A. Stability of the drug
B. Cost of the drug
C. Color of the drug
D. Therapeutic value of the drug

Answer: C

16. Which solvent is widely used for water-immiscible extractions?
A. Alcohol
B. Ether
C. Water
D. Ethanol

Answer: B

17. What is the main disadvantage of ordinary reflux extraction compared to Soxhlet extraction?
A. It takes longer
B. The solvent may become saturated with extracted material
C. It requires more solvent
D. It is less efficient

Answer: B

18. Which method is used for dilute solutions containing readily-soluble constituents?
A. Infusion
B. Decoction
C. Maceration
D. Percolation

Answer: A

19. Which of the following is a continuous hot extraction method?
A. Maceration
B. Percolation
C. Soxhlet extraction
D. Infusion

Answer: C

20. Which method is used for unpowderable drugs?
A. Percolation 
B. Maceration 
C. Soxhlet extraction 
D. Steam distillation 

Answer: B

21. Which of the following is NOT a hot extraction method?
A. Digestion 
B. Decoction 
C. Infusion 
D. Percolation 

Answer: D

22. Which method is used for expensive drugs to ensure complete extraction?
A. Maceration 
B. Percolation 
C. Infusion 
D. Steam distillation 

Answer: B

23. Which of the following is a factor affecting the choice of extraction process?
A. Color of the solvent 
B. Stability of the drug 
C. Smell of the plant material 
D. Shape of the plant material 

Answer: B

24. Which method is used for thermo-labile constituents?
A. Continuous hot extraction 
B. Maceration 
C. Soxhlet extraction 
D. Steam distillation 

Answer: B

25. Which method is used for extracting non-polar compounds followed by polar compounds?
A. Maceration 
B. Percolation 
C. Soxhlet extraction 
D. Steam distillation 

Answer: B