1. What is the atomic number of aluminium?
a)12
b)13
c)26
d)3
Answer: b) 13
2. From which salt does the name 'aluminium' derive?
a)Alum
b)Aluminate
c)Alumina
d)Aluminium sulfate
Answer: a) Alum
3. In a normal human body, where is most of the aluminium found?
a)The brain and liver
b)The lungs and skeleton
c)The blood and kidneys
d)The stomach and intestines
Answer: b) The lungs and skeleton
4. Why is Al³⁺ a potential competitive inhibitor for elements like Mg²⁺ and Ca²⁺?
a)It has a similar atomic mass.
b)It has similar ionic radii and charges.
c)It forms similar covalent bonds.
d)It is more abundant in the body.
Answer: b) It has similar ionic radii and charges.
5. Under normal circumstances, why does Al³⁺ not accumulate in the human body?
a)It is not absorbed at all.
b)It is stored permanently in fat tissues.
c)The kidneys quickly excrete most of it.
d)The brain breaks it down efficiently.
Answer: c) The kidneys quickly excrete most of it.
6. In water purification, what is the final solid product formed when Al³⁺ and lime (CaO) are added?
a)AlCl₃
b)CaSO₄
c)Al(OH)₃
d)AlPO₄
Answer: c) Al(OH)₃
7. What is the primary function of an adjuvant in a vaccine?
a)To act as the primary antigen
b)To kill viruses in the vaccine
c)To increase antibody responses and/or stabilize the preparation
d)To reduce the cost of production
Answer: c) To increase antibody responses and/or stabilize the preparation
8. Which of the following is NOT listed as a typical aluminium-based adjuvant?
a)Al(OH)₃
b)AlPO₄
c)ZrO₂
d)KAl(SO₄)₂·12H₂O
Answer: c) ZrO₂
9. What is the primary medical function of antacids?
a)To stimulate digestion
b)To neutralize excess stomach acid
c)To coat the stomach lining
d)To kill harmful bacteria
Answer: b) To neutralize excess stomach acid
10. What is a common side effect of using Al(OH)₃ as an antacid, which is often countered by formulating it with Mg²⁺ compounds?
a)Diarrhea
b)Headache
c)Constipation
d)Drowsiness
Answer: c) Constipation
11. What is simethicone, often added to antacid formulations?
a)A sweetening agent
b)An antifoaming agent
c)A coloring agent
d)A binding agent
Answer: b) An antifoaming agent
12. A key disadvantage of using sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) as an antacid is that it produces:
a)Hydrogen gas
b)Methane gas
c)Carbon dioxide gas
d)Nitrogen gas
Answer: c) Carbon dioxide gas
13. Which aluminium compound is specifically mentioned as being used in the anti-acid formulation Gastralgine?
a)Aluminium chloride
b)Aluminium glycinate
c)Aluminium phosphate
d)Aluminium oxide
Answer: b) Aluminium glycinate
14. In alginate raft formulations, what is the primary role of the alginate polymer?
a)To neutralize acid directly
b)To form a low-density viscous gel that floats
c)To act as an antibiotic
d)To provide a sweet taste
Answer: b) To form a low-density viscous gel that floats
15. What condition is commonly treated with aluminium-based phosphate binders like Al(OH)₃?
a)Hypophosphataemia
b)Hyperphosphataemia
c)Anaemia
d)Hypertension
Answer: b) Hyperphosphataemia
16. Where does the freshly precipitated Al(OH)₃ adsorb phosphate ions in the body?
a)In the stomach
b)In the oesophagus
c)In the distal intestines
d)In the blood
Answer: c) In the distal intestines
17. How is the Al³⁺-phosphate complex finally excreted from the body?
a)Via urine
b)Via sweat
c)Via exhaled air
d)Via faeces
Answer: d) Via faeces
18. How do aluminosilicates, like those in Malinal, differ from Al(OH)₃ as phosphate binders?
a)They are less effective.
b)They need prior exposure to acid to produce free Al³⁺.
c)They are excreted via urine.
d)They work only in the stomach.
Answer: b) They need prior exposure to acid to produce free Al³⁺.
19. How does AlCl₃ function as an antiperspirant?
a)By killing sweat gland bacteria
b)By forming a plug of Al(OH)₃ within the sweat duct
c)By cooling the skin surface
d)By dilating the sweat ducts
Answer: b) By forming a plug of Al(OH)₃ within the sweat duct
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20. What is a potential severe neurological condition associated with excessive Al³⁺ accumulation, particularly in dialysis patients?
a)Alzheimer's disease
b)Dialysis dementia
c)Parkinson's disease
d)Multiple sclerosis
Answer: b) Dialysis dementia
21. Which organ is primarily responsible for preventing Al³⁺ from entering the brain under normal conditions?
a)The Liver
b)The Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
c)The Kidneys
d)The Lungs
Answer: b) The Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
22. What is the chemical symbol for aluminium?
a)Al
b)Am
c)Au
d)A
Answer: a) Al
23. Which of the following is a known toxic effect of excessive Al³⁺ intake, causing softening of the bones?
a)Osteoporosis
b)Osteogenesis
c)Osteomalacia
d)Arthritis
Answer: c) Osteomalacia
24. In the context of vaccines, what is the "depot effect" of an aluminium-based adjuvant?
a)It stores the vaccine for later use.
b)It traps the antigen at the injection site for slow release.
c)It destroys the antigen quickly.
d)It prevents the vaccine from freezing.
Answer: b) It traps the antigen at the injection site for slow release.
25. What is the chemical reaction that occurs when Al(OH)₃ neutralizes stomach acid (HCl)?
a)Al(OH)₃ + 2HCl → AlCl₂ + 2H₂O
b)Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl → AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
c)Al(OH)₃ + HCl → AlCl + H₂O + O₂
d)2Al(OH)₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O + H₂
Answer: b) Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl → AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
26. The raft formed by alginate formulations moves into the oesophagus to act as a:
a)Digestive enzyme
b)Mobile neutralizing sealant
c)Permanent barrier
d)Pain reliever
Answer: b) Mobile neutralizing sealant
27. What is the primary reason Al(OH)₃ is used as a phosphate binder in patients with kidney failure?
a)It increases phosphate absorption.
b)It binds phosphate in the gut, preventing absorption.
c)It helps the kidneys produce more urine.
d)It converts phosphate into a harmless gas.
Answer: b) It binds phosphate in the gut, preventing absorption.
28. Which element does aluminium share a diagonal relationship with?
a)Boron
b)Silicon
c)Beryllium
d)Gallium
Answer: c) Beryllium
29. The text states that aluminium-based adjuvants are the only kind licensed by the:
a)WHO
b)EMA
c)FDA
d)CDC
Answer: c) FDA
30. In the water purification process, what role does lime (CaO) play?
a)It provides Al³⁺ ions.
b)It decreases the pH of the water.
c)It increases the pH, providing OH⁻ ions.
d)It acts as a disinfectant.
Answer: c) It increases the pH, providing OH⁻ ions.
a)Alzheimer's disease
b)Dialysis dementia
c)Parkinson's disease
d)Multiple sclerosis
Answer: b) Dialysis dementia
21. Which organ is primarily responsible for preventing Al³⁺ from entering the brain under normal conditions?
a)The Liver
b)The Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
c)The Kidneys
d)The Lungs
Answer: b) The Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
22. What is the chemical symbol for aluminium?
a)Al
b)Am
c)Au
d)A
Answer: a) Al
23. Which of the following is a known toxic effect of excessive Al³⁺ intake, causing softening of the bones?
a)Osteoporosis
b)Osteogenesis
c)Osteomalacia
d)Arthritis
Answer: c) Osteomalacia
24. In the context of vaccines, what is the "depot effect" of an aluminium-based adjuvant?
a)It stores the vaccine for later use.
b)It traps the antigen at the injection site for slow release.
c)It destroys the antigen quickly.
d)It prevents the vaccine from freezing.
Answer: b) It traps the antigen at the injection site for slow release.
25. What is the chemical reaction that occurs when Al(OH)₃ neutralizes stomach acid (HCl)?
a)Al(OH)₃ + 2HCl → AlCl₂ + 2H₂O
b)Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl → AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
c)Al(OH)₃ + HCl → AlCl + H₂O + O₂
d)2Al(OH)₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O + H₂
Answer: b) Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl → AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
26. The raft formed by alginate formulations moves into the oesophagus to act as a:
a)Digestive enzyme
b)Mobile neutralizing sealant
c)Permanent barrier
d)Pain reliever
Answer: b) Mobile neutralizing sealant
27. What is the primary reason Al(OH)₃ is used as a phosphate binder in patients with kidney failure?
a)It increases phosphate absorption.
b)It binds phosphate in the gut, preventing absorption.
c)It helps the kidneys produce more urine.
d)It converts phosphate into a harmless gas.
Answer: b) It binds phosphate in the gut, preventing absorption.
28. Which element does aluminium share a diagonal relationship with?
a)Boron
b)Silicon
c)Beryllium
d)Gallium
Answer: c) Beryllium
29. The text states that aluminium-based adjuvants are the only kind licensed by the:
a)WHO
b)EMA
c)FDA
d)CDC
Answer: c) FDA
30. In the water purification process, what role does lime (CaO) play?
a)It provides Al³⁺ ions.
b)It decreases the pH of the water.
c)It increases the pH, providing OH⁻ ions.
d)It acts as a disinfectant.
Answer: c) It increases the pH, providing OH⁻ ions.
1. why is oral administration of gallium considered superior to parenteral administration?
A. It causes more myelosuppression.
B. It leads to a slow plasma loading and transferrin binding, potentially reducing renal toxicity.
C. It is excreted more quickly by the kidneys.
D. It does not bind to transferrin.
Answer: B.
2. What is the standard intravenous dose of gallium nitrate for treating cancer-induced hypercalcaemia?
A. 200 mg/m² for 5 days
B. 100 mg/m² for 10 days
C. 200 mg/m² for 10 days
D. 100 mg/m² for 5 days
Answer: A.
3. What is the dose-limiting factor for gallium nitrate when administered as a brief intravenous infusion?
A. Diarrhoea
B. Leukopaenia
C. Renal toxicities
D. Myelosuppression
Answer: C.
4. What is the most common side effect of gallium nitrate with long-term administration regimes?
A. Renal toxicity
B. Diarrhoea
C. Myelosuppression
D. Leukopaenia
Answer: B.
5. A major advantage of gallium nitrate therapies over conventional chemotherapeutic agents is:
A. It causes severe diarrhoea.
B. It does not suppress platelet or white blood cell counts.
C. It has a very short half-life.
Answer: B.
6. Why is the radioactive isotope ^{72}Ga not suitable for effective radiotherapy of bone cancer?
A. It has too long a half-life.
B. It does not accumulate in the bone.
C. Its half-life of around 14 hours is not long enough.
D. It is too expensive to produce.
Answer: C.
7. Current clinical developments involve the use of radioactive gallium isotopes as:
A. Pain relievers
B. Tumor imaging reagents
C. Blood thinners
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B.
8. The stability of gallium chloride or nitrate solutions for oral administration is primarily affected by:
A. Temperature
B. Light exposure
C. pH
D. Concentration
Answer: C.
9. Gallium hydroxide species are described as amphoteric, which is analogous to which other element's compounds?
A. Iron
B. Sodium
C. Aluminium
D. Calcium
Answer: C.
10. The ionic radius and binding properties of Ga^{3+} are most similar to which ion?
A. Ca^{2+}
B. Fe^{2+}
C. Fe^{3+}
D. Mg^{2+}
Answer: C.
11. A key difference in the redox chemistry of Ga^{3+} compared to Fe^{3+} is that Ga^{3+} :
A. Can be easily reduced to a divalent state.
B. Cannot be reduced to a divalent state.
C. Is a stronger oxidizing agent.
D. Is involved in haeme group binding.
Answer: B.
12. Why can Ga^{3+} not bind to the haeme group?
A. It is too large.
B. It does not reduce to the +II state required for binding.
C. It is repelled by the protein structure.
D. It preferentially binds to DNA instead.
Answer: B.
13. What is the primary function of transferrin in the blood plasma?
A. To transport oxygen
B. To bind and remove free, toxic iron ions
C. To reduce gallium ions
D. To synthesize DNA
Answer: B.
14. How does the affinity of Ga^{3+} for transferrin compare to that of Fe^{3+} ?
A. Ga^{3+} has a higher affinity.
B. Ga^{3+} has a lower affinity.
C. Their affinities are identical.
D. Ga^{3+} does not bind to transferrin at all.
Answer: B.
15. When the binding capacity of transferrin for gallium is exceeded, gallium is believed to circulate as:
A. Free Ga^{3+} ions
B. Gallate ( [Ga(OH)_{4}]^{-} )
C. Gallium nitrate
D. Gallium maltolate
Answer: B.
16. The therapeutic action of gallium is primarily based on its ability to:
A. Mimic calcium.
B. Mimic iron and compete for its active sites in enzymes.
C. Act as a strong reducing agent.
D. Directly break DNA strands.
Answer: B.
17. In the cytosol, gallium can bind to and inhibit which enzyme, thereby impairing DNA replication?
A. Transferrin
B. DNA polymerase
C. Ribonucleotide reductase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: C.
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18. Gallium nitrate has proven to be highly active as an antitumor agent specifically against which cancers?
A. Breast and prostate cancer
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and bladder cancer
C. Lung and liver cancer
D. Pancreatic and brain cancer
Answer: B.
19. What is the brand name of the FDA-approved gallium nitrate injection for cancer-associated hypercalcaemia?
A. GalliumPlus
B. Ganite™
C. Gammalate
D. Hypercal-Nil
Answer: B.
20. Besides its antitumor effects, gallium nitrate is also believed to inhibit bone turnover, which is beneficial for patients with:
A. Liver disease
B. Bone metastasis
C. Kidney failure
D. Anaemia
Answer: B.
21. Gallium 8-quinolinolate was developed as an oral anticancer agent primarily for which type of cancer?
A. Bladder cancer
B. Lymphoma
C. Lung cancer
D. Bone cancer
Answer: C.
22. A main side effect of Gallium 8-quinolinolate is:
A. Renal toxicity
B. Leukopaenia
C. Diarrhoea
D. Hair loss
Answer: B.
23. Compared to gallium nitrate, how much more potent is Gallium 8-quinolinolate?
A. 2 times
B. 5 times
C. 10 times
D. 100 times
Answer: C.
24. The inhibitory effect of Gallium 8-quinolinolate appears to be:
A. Time dependent and not dose dependent.
B. Neither dose nor time dependent.
C. Dose dependent and not time dependent.
D. Both dose and time dependent.
Answer: C.
25. Gallium maltolate is a coordination complex with a central Ga^{3+} ion and three:
A. Quinolinolate groups
B. Chloride ions
C. Maltolate groups
D. Water molecules
Answer: C.
26. Clinical studies show that the oral bioavailability of gallium maltolate is significantly higher than that of:
A. Gallium nitrate
B. Gallium 8-quinolinolate
C. Gallium chloride
D. Ferric iron
Answer: C.
27. What is the approximate oral bioavailability range of gallium maltolate?
A. 2-5%
B. 10-15%
C. 25-57%
D. 75-90%
Answer: C.
28. How is orally administered gallium maltolate excreted compared to intravenously injected gallium nitrate?
A. More quickly via the kidneys.
B. More slowly via the kidneys.
C. Primarily through faeces.
D. Through exhaled air.
Answer: B.
29. Rapid intravenous administration of gallium leads to the formation of what compound that is quickly cleared by the kidneys?
A. Gallium maltolate
B. Gallate
C. Gallium transferrin
D. Gallium hydroxide precipitate
Answer: B.
30. In which organs are the highest concentrations of Gallium 8-quinolinolate found?
A. Brain, heart, and lungs
B. Bone, liver, and spleen
C. Kidneys, stomach, and intestines
D. Skin, muscle, and fat
Answer: B.
A. Breast and prostate cancer
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and bladder cancer
C. Lung and liver cancer
D. Pancreatic and brain cancer
Answer: B.
19. What is the brand name of the FDA-approved gallium nitrate injection for cancer-associated hypercalcaemia?
A. GalliumPlus
B. Ganite™
C. Gammalate
D. Hypercal-Nil
Answer: B.
20. Besides its antitumor effects, gallium nitrate is also believed to inhibit bone turnover, which is beneficial for patients with:
A. Liver disease
B. Bone metastasis
C. Kidney failure
D. Anaemia
Answer: B.
21. Gallium 8-quinolinolate was developed as an oral anticancer agent primarily for which type of cancer?
A. Bladder cancer
B. Lymphoma
C. Lung cancer
D. Bone cancer
Answer: C.
22. A main side effect of Gallium 8-quinolinolate is:
A. Renal toxicity
B. Leukopaenia
C. Diarrhoea
D. Hair loss
Answer: B.
23. Compared to gallium nitrate, how much more potent is Gallium 8-quinolinolate?
A. 2 times
B. 5 times
C. 10 times
D. 100 times
Answer: C.
24. The inhibitory effect of Gallium 8-quinolinolate appears to be:
A. Time dependent and not dose dependent.
B. Neither dose nor time dependent.
C. Dose dependent and not time dependent.
D. Both dose and time dependent.
Answer: C.
25. Gallium maltolate is a coordination complex with a central Ga^{3+} ion and three:
A. Quinolinolate groups
B. Chloride ions
C. Maltolate groups
D. Water molecules
Answer: C.
26. Clinical studies show that the oral bioavailability of gallium maltolate is significantly higher than that of:
A. Gallium nitrate
B. Gallium 8-quinolinolate
C. Gallium chloride
D. Ferric iron
Answer: C.
27. What is the approximate oral bioavailability range of gallium maltolate?
A. 2-5%
B. 10-15%
C. 25-57%
D. 75-90%
Answer: C.
28. How is orally administered gallium maltolate excreted compared to intravenously injected gallium nitrate?
A. More quickly via the kidneys.
B. More slowly via the kidneys.
C. Primarily through faeces.
D. Through exhaled air.
Answer: B.
29. Rapid intravenous administration of gallium leads to the formation of what compound that is quickly cleared by the kidneys?
A. Gallium maltolate
B. Gallate
C. Gallium transferrin
D. Gallium hydroxide precipitate
Answer: B.
30. In which organs are the highest concentrations of Gallium 8-quinolinolate found?
A. Brain, heart, and lungs
B. Bone, liver, and spleen
C. Kidneys, stomach, and intestines
D. Skin, muscle, and fat
Answer: B.
MCQ | 3rdRound pinned «📌 Inorganic : 1️⃣ st Lec 1️⃣ st quiz 2️⃣ nd quiz 3️⃣ rd quiz 3️⃣ rd Lec : Aluminum 3️⃣ rd Lec : Gallium»
1. What are the primary elements that constitute carbohydrates?
a)Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulfur
b)Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
c)Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen
d)Carbon, Dioxide, Water
Answer: b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
2. The hydrogen-to-oxygen ratio in carbohydrates is generally the same as in:
a)Hydrogen Peroxide
b)Carbon Dioxide
c)Water
d)Methane
Answer: c) Water
3. Why are carbohydrates a convenient starting point for discussing vegetable drugs?
a)They are complex and difficult to break down.
b)They are the first products formed in photosynthesis.
c)They are only found in animals.
d)They have no significant function in plants.
Answer: b) They are the first products formed in photosynthesis.
4. What is the primary fuel for the body's tissues?
a)Fructose
b)Sucrose
c)Galactose
d)Glucose
Answer: d) Glucose
5. Which monosaccharide is a component of nucleic acids?
a)Galactose
b)Ribose
c)Fructose
d)Glucose
Answer: b) Ribose
6. Lactose in milk is composed of glucose and which other monosaccharide?
a)Fructose
b)Ribose
c)Galactose
d)Mannose
Answer: c) Galactose
7. What are complex molecules formed from the combination of carbohydrates and proteins called?
a)Lipoproteins
b)Glycoproteins
c)Nucleoproteins
d)Glycolipids
Answer: b) Glycoproteins
8. Into which two broad groups are carbohydrates classified?
a)Sugars and Proteins
b)Sugars and Polysaccharides
c)Monosaccharides and Disaccharides
d)Simple and Complex Lipids
Answer: b) Sugars and Polysaccharides
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of sugars?
a)Insoluble in water
b)Bitter taste
c)Crystalline and sweet
d)High molecular weight
Answer: c) Crystalline and sweet
10. Monosaccharides are defined as:
a)Compounds that yield two simpler sugars on hydrolysis.
b)Compounds that cannot be hydrolyzed to simpler sugars.
c)Compounds with a very high molecular weight.
d)Polymers of amino acids.
Answer: b) Compounds that cannot be hydrolyzed to simpler sugars.
11. A disaccharide yields how many monosaccharide molecules upon hydrolysis?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
Answer: b) 2
12. A trisaccharide yields how many monosaccharide molecules upon hydrolysis?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
Answer: c) 3
13. Monosaccharides are classified based on the number of what in their molecule?
a)Oxygen atoms
b)Carbon atoms
c)Hydrogen atoms
d)Functional groups
Answer: b) Carbon atoms
14. A 5-carbon monosaccharide is called a:
a)Triose
b)Tetrose
c)Pentose
d)Hexose
Answer: c) Pentose
15. A 6-carbon monosaccharide is called a:
a)Triose
b)Tetrose
c)Pentose
d)Hexose
Answer: d) Hexose
16. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
a)Glucose
b)Sucrose
c)Starch
d)Ribose
Answer: c) Starch
17. Upon hydrolysis, starch yields which monosaccharide?
a)Fructose
b)Galactose
c)Glucose
d)Ribose
Answer: c) Glucose
18. A polysaccharide that yields fructose upon hydrolysis is known as a:
a)Glucosan
b)Fructosan
c)Galactosan
d)Ribosan
Answer: b) Fructosan
19. Which polysaccharide is represented as a fructosan?
a)Starch
b)Cellulose
c)Inulin
d)Dextran
Answer: c) Inulin
20. Hexoses are considered the most important monosaccharides in plants because they:
a)Are the sweetest sugars.
b)Form the units from which most polysaccharides are constructed.
c)Are only used for energy storage.
d)Cannot form ring structures.
Answer: b) Form the units from which most polysaccharides are constructed.
21. In an open-chain aldohexose, the sixth carbon is part of which functional group?
a)Ketone
b)Alcohol
c)Aldehyde
d)Carboxyl
Answer: c) Aldehyde
22. D-fructose is an example of a:
a)Aldohexose
b)Ketohexose
c)Aldopentose
d)Ketopentose
Answer: b) Ketohexose
23. The reducing properties of monosaccharides are due to the presence of:
a)Alcohol groups (-OH)
b)The carbonyl group (C=O) of aldehyde or ketone
c)Methyl groups (-CH3)
d)Long carbon chains
Answer: b) The carbonyl group (C=O) of aldehyde or ketone
24. What term is commonly applied to sugars that exhibit reducing properties?
a)Non-reducing sugars
b)Complex sugars
c)Reducing sugars
d)Inert sugars
Answer: c) Reducing sugars
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❤4
25. Evidence indicates that glucose and other hexoses often exist in which form(s)?
a)Only in straight-chain structures
b)Only in cyclic forms
c)In both cyclic and straight-chain structures
d)Only in branched-chain structures
Answer: c) In both cyclic and straight-chain structures
26. Which disaccharide is the only one that occurs abundantly in the free state in plants?
a)Maltose
b)Lactose
c)Sucrose
d)Cellobiose
Answer: c) Sucrose
27. Upon hydrolysis, sucrose yields an equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose known as:
a)High-fructose corn syrup
b)Invert sugar
c)Malt sugar
d)Liquid glucose
Answer: b) Invert sugar
28. Sucrose is commercially obtained from:
a)Grapes and honey
b)Sugar cane and sugar beets
c)Milk and cheese
d)Cotton and wood
Answer: b) Sugar cane and sugar beets
29. Which of the following is a pharmaceutical use of sucrose?
a)Osmotic diuretic
b)Demulcent and nutrient in syrups
c)Surgical dressing
d)Tablet disintegrant
Answer: b) Demulcent and nutrient in syrups
30. Dextrose is another name for:
a)D-Fructose
b)D-Galactose
c)D-Glucose
d)Sucrose
Answer: c) D-Glucose
31. How is dextrose suitable for parenteral use typically obtained?
a)Directly from grapes
b)By controlled enzymatic hydrolysis of starch
c)From the manna tree
d)By bacterial fermentation
Answer: b) By controlled enzymatic hydrolysis of starch
32. Mannitol is classified as a:
a)Polysaccharide
b)Disaccharide
c)Hexahydric alcohol
d)Amino sugar
Answer: c) Hexahydric alcohol
33. What is the natural source of mannitol?
a)Manna, the dried saccharine exudate from Fraxinus ornus
b)Starch from potatoes
c)Cellulose from cotton
d)Sucrose from sugar cane
Answer: a) Manna, the dried saccharine exudate from Fraxinus ornus
34. How is mannitol used when administered parenterally?
a)As a sweetener
b)As an osmotic diuretic
c)As a suspending agent
d)As a nutrient
Answer: b) As an osmotic diuretic
35. Starch is a mixture of which two polysaccharides?
a)Cellulose and Inulin
b)Amylose and Amylopectin
c)Dextran and Glycogen
d)Sucrose and Maltose
Answer: b) Amylose and Amylopectin
36. Amylose is a linear molecule composed of D-glucose units linked by:
a)α-1,6 glycosidic bonds
b)β-1,4 glycosidic bonds
c)α-1,4 glycosidic bonds
d)β-1,6 glycosidic bonds
Answer: c) α-1,4 glycosidic bonds
37. What type of linkages create the branch points in amylopectin?
a)α-1,4 linkages
b)β-1,4 linkages
c)α-1,6 linkages
d)β-1,6 linkages
Answer: c) α-1,6 linkages
38. Which of the following is a source of starch?
a)Gossypium hirsutum
b)Solanum tuberosum (Potato)
c)Acacia senegal
d)Gelidium cartilagineum
Answer: b) Solanum tuberosum (Potato)
39. Which of these is NOT a pharmaceutical use of starch?
a)Tablet filler and disintegrant
b)Antidote for iodine poisoning
c)Osmotic diuretic
d)Starting material for dextrose production
Answer: c) Osmotic diuretic
40. Dextran is a polysaccharide formed from sucrose by the action of an enzyme from:
a)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b)Escherichia coli
c)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
d)Aspergillus niger
Answer: c) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
41. Purified cotton is primarily composed of:
a)Starch
b)Lignin
c)Cellulose
d)Pectin
Answer: c) Cellulose
42. The glycosidic linkage in cellulose is:
a)α-1,4
b)α-1,6
c)β-1,4
d)β-1,6
Answer: c) β-1,4
43. What is a primary pharmaceutical use of purified cotton (absorbent cotton)?
a)Sweetener
b)Surgical dressing to absorb fluids
c)Tablet binder
d)Culture media
Answer: b) Surgical dressing to absorb fluids
44. Methylcellulose is used as:
a)An osmotic diuretic
b)A bulk laxative and suspending agent
c)A source of energy
d)A surgical dressing
Answer: b) A bulk laxative and suspending agent
45. Ethylcellulose is primarily used as:
a)A sweetening agent
b)A nutrient
c)A tablet binder or coating
d)An antidote
Answer: c) A tablet binder or coating
46. How are gums typically produced in plants?
a)As a primary product of photosynthesis
b)As a structural component of cell walls
c)As a protective exudate after injury
d)As an energy storage molecule
Answer: c) As a protective exudate after injury
a)Only in straight-chain structures
b)Only in cyclic forms
c)In both cyclic and straight-chain structures
d)Only in branched-chain structures
Answer: c) In both cyclic and straight-chain structures
26. Which disaccharide is the only one that occurs abundantly in the free state in plants?
a)Maltose
b)Lactose
c)Sucrose
d)Cellobiose
Answer: c) Sucrose
27. Upon hydrolysis, sucrose yields an equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose known as:
a)High-fructose corn syrup
b)Invert sugar
c)Malt sugar
d)Liquid glucose
Answer: b) Invert sugar
28. Sucrose is commercially obtained from:
a)Grapes and honey
b)Sugar cane and sugar beets
c)Milk and cheese
d)Cotton and wood
Answer: b) Sugar cane and sugar beets
29. Which of the following is a pharmaceutical use of sucrose?
a)Osmotic diuretic
b)Demulcent and nutrient in syrups
c)Surgical dressing
d)Tablet disintegrant
Answer: b) Demulcent and nutrient in syrups
30. Dextrose is another name for:
a)D-Fructose
b)D-Galactose
c)D-Glucose
d)Sucrose
Answer: c) D-Glucose
31. How is dextrose suitable for parenteral use typically obtained?
a)Directly from grapes
b)By controlled enzymatic hydrolysis of starch
c)From the manna tree
d)By bacterial fermentation
Answer: b) By controlled enzymatic hydrolysis of starch
32. Mannitol is classified as a:
a)Polysaccharide
b)Disaccharide
c)Hexahydric alcohol
d)Amino sugar
Answer: c) Hexahydric alcohol
33. What is the natural source of mannitol?
a)Manna, the dried saccharine exudate from Fraxinus ornus
b)Starch from potatoes
c)Cellulose from cotton
d)Sucrose from sugar cane
Answer: a) Manna, the dried saccharine exudate from Fraxinus ornus
34. How is mannitol used when administered parenterally?
a)As a sweetener
b)As an osmotic diuretic
c)As a suspending agent
d)As a nutrient
Answer: b) As an osmotic diuretic
35. Starch is a mixture of which two polysaccharides?
a)Cellulose and Inulin
b)Amylose and Amylopectin
c)Dextran and Glycogen
d)Sucrose and Maltose
Answer: b) Amylose and Amylopectin
36. Amylose is a linear molecule composed of D-glucose units linked by:
a)α-1,6 glycosidic bonds
b)β-1,4 glycosidic bonds
c)α-1,4 glycosidic bonds
d)β-1,6 glycosidic bonds
Answer: c) α-1,4 glycosidic bonds
37. What type of linkages create the branch points in amylopectin?
a)α-1,4 linkages
b)β-1,4 linkages
c)α-1,6 linkages
d)β-1,6 linkages
Answer: c) α-1,6 linkages
38. Which of the following is a source of starch?
a)Gossypium hirsutum
b)Solanum tuberosum (Potato)
c)Acacia senegal
d)Gelidium cartilagineum
Answer: b) Solanum tuberosum (Potato)
39. Which of these is NOT a pharmaceutical use of starch?
a)Tablet filler and disintegrant
b)Antidote for iodine poisoning
c)Osmotic diuretic
d)Starting material for dextrose production
Answer: c) Osmotic diuretic
40. Dextran is a polysaccharide formed from sucrose by the action of an enzyme from:
a)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b)Escherichia coli
c)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
d)Aspergillus niger
Answer: c) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
41. Purified cotton is primarily composed of:
a)Starch
b)Lignin
c)Cellulose
d)Pectin
Answer: c) Cellulose
42. The glycosidic linkage in cellulose is:
a)α-1,4
b)α-1,6
c)β-1,4
d)β-1,6
Answer: c) β-1,4
43. What is a primary pharmaceutical use of purified cotton (absorbent cotton)?
a)Sweetener
b)Surgical dressing to absorb fluids
c)Tablet binder
d)Culture media
Answer: b) Surgical dressing to absorb fluids
44. Methylcellulose is used as:
a)An osmotic diuretic
b)A bulk laxative and suspending agent
c)A source of energy
d)A surgical dressing
Answer: b) A bulk laxative and suspending agent
45. Ethylcellulose is primarily used as:
a)A sweetening agent
b)A nutrient
c)A tablet binder or coating
d)An antidote
Answer: c) A tablet binder or coating
46. How are gums typically produced in plants?
a)As a primary product of photosynthesis
b)As a structural component of cell walls
c)As a protective exudate after injury
d)As an energy storage molecule
Answer: c) As a protective exudate after injury
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47. What is a key distinction between gums and mucilages?
a)Gums are sweet, mucilages are not.
b)Gums are pathologic products, mucilages are physiologic products.
c)Gums are insoluble, mucilages are soluble.
d)Gums are derived from animals, mucilages from plants.
Answer: b) Gums are pathologic products, mucilages are physiologic products.
48. Tragacanth is a gum obtained from species of:
a)Acacia
b)Astragalus
c)Gelidium
d)Fraxinus
Answer: b) Astragalus
49. Which gum is also known as gum arabic?
a)Tragacanth
b)Agar
c)Sodium Alginate
d)Acacia
Answer: d) Acacia
50. Agar is extracted from seaweed and is extensively used as:
a)A sweetener
b)A gel in bacteriologic culture media
c)An osmotic diuretic
d)A tablet coating
Answer: b) A gel in bacteriologic culture media
a)Gums are sweet, mucilages are not.
b)Gums are pathologic products, mucilages are physiologic products.
c)Gums are insoluble, mucilages are soluble.
d)Gums are derived from animals, mucilages from plants.
Answer: b) Gums are pathologic products, mucilages are physiologic products.
48. Tragacanth is a gum obtained from species of:
a)Acacia
b)Astragalus
c)Gelidium
d)Fraxinus
Answer: b) Astragalus
49. Which gum is also known as gum arabic?
a)Tragacanth
b)Agar
c)Sodium Alginate
d)Acacia
Answer: d) Acacia
50. Agar is extracted from seaweed and is extensively used as:
a)A sweetener
b)A gel in bacteriologic culture media
c)An osmotic diuretic
d)A tablet coating
Answer: b) A gel in bacteriologic culture media
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Techno3rdround_202511251910_42232.pdf
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3rd Lec quiz
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Tinctures (General) :
1. Tinctures are defined as alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from:
A. Animal tissues only
B. Vegetable materials or chemical substances
C. Purely synthetic minerals
D. Gaseous substances
Answer: B. Vegetable materials or chemical substances
2. What is the approximate alcohol content range in tinctures?
A. 5% to 10%
B. 10% to 20%
C. 15% to 80%
D. 90% to 100%
Answer: C. 15% to 80%
3. In tinctures, alcohol serves as a preservative against:
A. Oxidation
B. Microbial growth
C. Evaporation
D. Light decomposition
Answer: B. Microbial growth
4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of tinctures?
A. Easy to swallow
B. Low alcohol content
C. Unpleasant taste
D. Highly concentrated dose
Answer: C. Unpleasant taste
5. To protect tinctures from light and temperature, they must be stored in:
A. Clear plastic bottles
B. Light-resistant containers
C. Open beakers
D. Metal cans
Answer: B. Light-resistant containers
Section 2: Topical Tinctures (Examples)
6. Green Soap Tincture contains approximately how much Ethyl Alcohol?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 70%
Answer: C. 30%
7. What is a primary use of Green Soap Tincture?
A. Oral supplement
B. Cleaning surgical instruments and skin after tattoos
C. Treatment of cough
D. Eye drops
Answer: B. Cleaning surgical instruments and skin after tattoos
8. Iodine Tincture is also known as:
A. Strong Iodine Solution
B. Weak Iodine Solution
C. Lugol's Solution
D. Povidone Solution
Answer: B. Weak Iodine Solution
9. Compound Benzoin Tincture (CTB) is prepared by which method?
A. Percolation
B. Simple solution
C. Maceration
D. Distillation
Answer: C. Maceration
10. Which tincture is used to protect the skin before applying adhesive bandages?
A. Iodine Tincture
B. Thimerosal Tincture
C. Compound Benzoin Tincture
D. Vanilla Tincture
Answer: C. Compound Benzoin Tincture
Section 3: Oral & Specific Tinctures
11. Belladonna Tincture is prepared by which method?
A. Maceration
B. Percolation
C. Distillation
D. Decantation
Answer: B. Percolation
12. What is the medicinal use of Belladonna Tincture?
A. Antibiotic
B. Anticholinergic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Analgesic
Answer: B. Anticholinergic
13. Which of the following is used as a flavoring agent?
A. Iodine Tincture
B. Sweet Orange Peel Tincture
C. Nitromersol Tincture
D. Podophyllum Resin
Answer: B. Sweet Orange Peel Tincture
14. Thimerosal Tincture is primarily used as an:
A. Oral flavoring
B. Antiseptic/Anti-infective
C. Laxative
D. Solvent
Answer: B. Antiseptic/Anti-infective
Section 4: Concentration & Preparation Methods
15. How much "Potent Drug" is used to prepare 100 mL of its tincture?
A. 5 g
B. 10 g
C. 20 g
D. 50 g
Answer: B. 10 g
16. How much "Non-potent drug" is used to prepare 100 mL of its tincture?
A. 10 g
B. 20 g
C. 30 g
D. 100 g
Answer: B. 20 g
17. The process of "Maceration" involves:
A. Passing a solvent through a column of drug
B. Soaking the drug in a solvent for a period of time
C. Boiling the drug in water
D. Grinding the drug into a fine powder only
Answer: B. Soaking the drug in a solvent for a period of time
18. The process of "Percolation" involves:
A. Heating the drug to high temperatures
B. Slow passage of a solvent through a column of drug
C. Shaking the drug in a closed container
D. Freezing the drug
Answer: B. Slow passage of a solvent through a column of drug
Section 5: Fluid Extracts
19. Fluid extracts are liquid preparations of vegetable drugs containing alcohol as a:
A. Sweetener
B. Solvent or preservative
C. Coloring agent
D. Flavor
Answer: B. Solvent or preservative
20. What is the standard concentration of a Fluid Extract?
A. 10% (10 g drug in 100 mL)
B. 50% (50 g drug in 100 mL)
C. 100% (1 g drug in 1 mL)
D. 200% (2 g drug in 1 mL)
Answer: C. 100% (1 g drug in 1 mL)
21. Which method is used to prepare Fluid Extracts?
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A. Maceration
B. Percolation
C. Simple Solution
D. Sublimation
Answer: B. Percolation
22. Fluid extracts are __ times more concentrated than potent tinctures.
A. 2 times
B. 5 times
C. 10 times
D. 20 times
Answer: C. 10 times
23. Which Fluid Extract is used as a flavoring agent?
A. Cascara Sagrada
B. Glycyrrhiza (Licorice)
C. Senna
D. Belladonna
Answer: B. Glycyrrhiza (Licorice)
Section 6: Extracts, Resins & Oleoresins
24. Extracts are prepared by evaporating the solvent to a:
A. Diluted liquid
B. Semiliquid, solid, or powder consistency
C. Gaseous state
D. Clear solution
Answer: B. Semiliquid, solid, or powder consistency
25. Distillation under "reduced pressure" is used in extract preparation to:
A. Increase the boiling point
B. Protect drug substances against thermal decomposition
C. Add more solvent
D. Change the color
Answer: B. Protect drug substances against thermal decomposition
26. Which form of extract has a "plastic consistency"?
A. Semiliquid extract
B. Pilular or solid extract
C. Powdered extract
D. Fluid extract
Answer: B. Pilular or solid extract
27. Powdered extracts are used for making:
A. Syrups
B. Tablets and capsules
C. Ointments
D. Injections
Answer: B. Tablets and capsules
28. Natural resins are chemically described as:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Oxidized terpenes of volatile oils
C. Proteins
D. Fatty acids
Answer: B. Oxidized terpenes of volatile oils
29. Oleoresins are a mixture of:
A. Water and sugar
B. Volatile oils and resins
C. Alcohol and wax
D. Soap and glycerin
Answer: B. Volatile oils and resins
30. Which solvent is usually used to prepare Oleoresins like Capsicum?
A. Water
B. Ether or Acetone
C. Glycerin
D. Syrup
Answer: B. Ether or Acetone
B. Percolation
C. Simple Solution
D. Sublimation
Answer: B. Percolation
22. Fluid extracts are __ times more concentrated than potent tinctures.
A. 2 times
B. 5 times
C. 10 times
D. 20 times
Answer: C. 10 times
23. Which Fluid Extract is used as a flavoring agent?
A. Cascara Sagrada
B. Glycyrrhiza (Licorice)
C. Senna
D. Belladonna
Answer: B. Glycyrrhiza (Licorice)
Section 6: Extracts, Resins & Oleoresins
24. Extracts are prepared by evaporating the solvent to a:
A. Diluted liquid
B. Semiliquid, solid, or powder consistency
C. Gaseous state
D. Clear solution
Answer: B. Semiliquid, solid, or powder consistency
25. Distillation under "reduced pressure" is used in extract preparation to:
A. Increase the boiling point
B. Protect drug substances against thermal decomposition
C. Add more solvent
D. Change the color
Answer: B. Protect drug substances against thermal decomposition
26. Which form of extract has a "plastic consistency"?
A. Semiliquid extract
B. Pilular or solid extract
C. Powdered extract
D. Fluid extract
Answer: B. Pilular or solid extract
27. Powdered extracts are used for making:
A. Syrups
B. Tablets and capsules
C. Ointments
D. Injections
Answer: B. Tablets and capsules
28. Natural resins are chemically described as:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Oxidized terpenes of volatile oils
C. Proteins
D. Fatty acids
Answer: B. Oxidized terpenes of volatile oils
29. Oleoresins are a mixture of:
A. Water and sugar
B. Volatile oils and resins
C. Alcohol and wax
D. Soap and glycerin
Answer: B. Volatile oils and resins
30. Which solvent is usually used to prepare Oleoresins like Capsicum?
A. Water
B. Ether or Acetone
C. Glycerin
D. Syrup
Answer: B. Ether or Acetone
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