ماماخذين كلشي بهذا الچابتر ف أكو أسئلة ماداخلة
" حتى لا تشوفون سؤال ماتعرفونه ويصير عندكم panic attack "

Microbiology - Lecture 2 ↓

📍Trichomonas vaginalis :

1. What is the primary mode of transmission for *Trichomonas vaginalis*?
a) Airborne
b) Sexual intercourse
c) Contaminated water
d) Insect bites
Answer: b) Sexual intercourse

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of *Trichomonas vaginalis*?
a) Pear-shaped organism
b) Four anterior flagella
c) Cystic stage
d) Undulating membrane
Answer: c) Cystic stage

3. What is the diagnostic and infective stage of *Trichomonas vaginalis*?
a) Cyst
b) Trophozoite
c) Sporozoite
d) Oocyst
Answer: b) Trophozoite

4. In women, *Trichomonas vaginalis* infection is typically limited to which areas?
a) Uterus and fallopian tubes
b) Vulva, vagina, and cervix
c) Liver and spleen
d) Kidneys and bladder
Answer: b) Vulva, vagina, and cervix

5. What is the incubation period for *Trichomonas vaginalis*?
a) 1-2 days
b) 5-28 days
c) 30-60 days
d) 6 months
Answer: b) 5-28 days

6. Which of the following is a common symptom of trichomoniasis in women?
a) Joint pain
b) Profuse malodorous vaginal discharge
c) High fever
d) Skin rash
Answer: b) Profuse malodorous vaginal discharge

7. What is the recommended treatment for *Trichomonas vaginalis*?
a) Penicillin
b) Metronidazole
c) Tetracycline
d) Chloroquine
Answer: b) Metronidazole

📍Leishmania :
8. Which insect is responsible for transmitting *Leishmania*?
a) Mosquito
b) Sandfly
c) Tsetse fly
d) Tick
Answer: b) Sandfly

9. What are the two main forms of *Leishmania*?
a) Trophozoite and cyst
b) Amastigote and promastigote
c) Sporozoite and oocyst
d) Trypomastigote and epimastigote
Answer: b) Amastigote and promastigote

10. Which form of *Leishmania* is found in the sandfly?
a) Amastigote
b) Promastigote
c) Trophozoite
d) Cyst
Answer: b) Promastigote

11. What is the causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis in the Old World?
a) *Leishmania donovani*
b) *Leishmania tropica*
c) *Leishmania braziliensis*
d) *Leishmania mexicana*
Answer: b) *Leishmania tropica*

12. Which of the following is a symptom of visceral leishmaniasis?
a) Skin lesions
b) Splenomegaly
c) Joint pain
d) Skin rash
Answer: b) Splenomegaly

13. What is the common name for visceral leishmaniasis?
a) Sleeping sickness
b) Kala-azar
c) Chagas disease
d) Malaria
Answer: b) Kala-azar

14. Which drug is commonly used to treat visceral leishmaniasis?
a) Metronidazole
b) Sodium stibogluconate
c) Chloroquine
d) Tetracycline
Answer: b) Sodium stibogluconate

15. What is the primary diagnostic method for cutaneous leishmaniasis?
a) Blood smear
b) Biopsy of skin lesion
c) Urine test
d) Stool examination
Answer: b) Biopsy of skin lesion

📍Trypanosoma :

16. Which insect transmits *Trypanosoma cruzi*, the causative agent of Chagas disease?
a) Mosquito
b) Sandfly
c) Kissing bug
d) Tsetse fly
Answer: c) Kissing bug

17. What is the infective stage of *Trypanosoma* in humans?
a) Amastigote
b) Promastigote
c) Trypomastigote
d) Sporozoite
Answer: c) Trypomastigote

18. Which disease is caused by *Trypanosoma brucei*?
a) Chagas disease
b) Sleeping sickness
c) Leishmaniasis
d) Malaria
Answer: b) Sleeping sickness

19. What is the vector for African trypanosomiasis?
a) Mosquito
b) Sandfly
c) Tsetse fly
d) Tick
Answer: c) Tsetse fly

20. Which of the following is NOT a stage of *Trypanosoma*?
a) Trypomastigote
b) Epimastigote
c) Amastigote
d) Sporozoite
Answer: d) Sporozoite

📍Toxoplasma gondii :

21. What is the definitive host for *Toxoplasma gondii*?
a) Human
b) Cat
c) Dog
d) Rodent
Answer: b) Cat

22. Which of the following is NOT a form of *Toxoplasma gondii*?
a) Tachyzoite
b) Bradyzoite
c) Oocyst
d) Sporozoite
Answer: d) Sporozoite

23. How is *Toxoplasma gondii* most commonly transmitted to humans?
a) Mosquito bites
b) Contaminated food or water
c) Sexual contact
d) Airborne droplets
Answer: b) Contaminated food or water

24. Which form of *Toxoplasma gondii* is responsible for chronic infection?
a) Tachyzoite
b) Bradyzoite
c) Oocyst
d) Sporozoite
Answer: b) Bradyzoite

25. What is the primary method of diagnosing *Toxoplasma gondii* infection?
a) Blood smear
b) Serology
c) Stool examination
d) Urine test
Answer: b) Serology

26. Which of the following is a potential consequence of congenital toxoplasmosis?
a) Skin lesions
b) Microcephaly
c) Joint pain
d) High fever
Answer: b) Microcephaly

27. What is the most common symptom of *Toxoplasma gondii* infection in healthy individuals?
a) Severe headache
b) Flu-like symptoms
c) Skin rash
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Flu-like symptoms

28. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan parasite?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Malaria
c) Influenza
d) Hepatitis
Answer: b) Malaria

29. Which of the following is NOT a blood flagellate?
a) *Leishmania*
b) *Trypanosoma*
c) *Trichomonas*
d) *Plasmodium*
**Answer: c)Trichomonas

30. Which of the following is a common symptom of trichomoniasis in men?
a) Urethritis
b) Skin rash
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: a) Urethritis

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of *Leishmania* amastigotes?
a) Found in sandflies
b) Motile form
c) Intracellular parasite
d) Extracellular parasite
Answer: c) Intracellular parasite

32. Which of the following is a common symptom of cutaneous leishmaniasis?
a) Splenomegaly
b) Skin ulcers
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Skin ulcers

33. Which of the following is a common symptom of visceral leishmaniasis?
a) Skin lesions
b) Hepatomegaly
c) Joint pain
d) Skin rash
Answer: b) Hepatomegaly

34. Which of the following is a common symptom of African trypanosomiasis?
a) Skin lesions
b) Sleep disturbances
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Sleep disturbances

35. Which of the following is a common symptom of Chagas disease?
a) Skin lesions
b) Cardiomyopathy
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Cardiomyopathy

36. Which of the following is a common symptom of toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised individuals?
a) Skin lesions
b) Encephalitis
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Encephalitis

37. Which of the following is a common symptom of congenital toxoplasmosis?
a) Skin lesions
b) Hydrocephalus
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Hydrocephalus

38. Which of the following is a common symptom of malaria?
a) Skin lesions
b) High fever
c) Joint pain
d) Skin rash
Answer: b) High fever

39. Which of the following is a common symptom of *Trichomonas vaginalis* infection in women?
a) Skin lesions
b) Vaginal discharge
c) High fever
d) Joint pain
Answer: b) Vaginal discharge

40. Which of the following is a common symptom of *Leishmania* infection?
a) Skin lesions
b) High fever
c) Joint pain
d) Skin rash
Answer: a) Skin lesions

Microbiology - Lecture 4 ↓

📍Nematodes :

1.What is the common name for Enterobius vermicularis?**
a) Hookworm
b) Pinworm
c) Tapeworm
d) Roundworm
Answer: b) Pinworm

2. Who is the primary host for Enterobius vermicularis?
a) Dogs
b) Cats
c) Humans
d) Birds
Answer: c) Humans

3. Where do adult Enterobius vermicularis worms typically reside in the human body?
a) Stomach
b) Lungs
c) Cecum
d) Liver
Answer: c) Cecum

4. What is the most common symptom of Enterobius vermicularis infection?
a) Abdominal pain
b) Perianal pruritus
c) Cough
d) Diarrhea
Answer: b) Perianal pruritus

5. How is Enterobius vermicularis infection primarily diagnosed?
a) Blood test
b) Stool sample
c) Perianal swab with cellophane tape
d) Urine test
Answer: c) Perianal swab with cellophane tape

6. What is the treatment for Enterobius vermicularis infection?
a) Albendazole
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Tetracycline
Answer: a) Albendazole

7. How can Enterobius vermicularis infection be prevented?
a) Vaccination
b) Improved hygiene
c) Antibiotics
d) Avoiding raw meat
Answer: b) Improved hygiene

📍Virology :

8. What is the size range of viruses?
a) 1-10 nm
b) 20-300 nm
c) 500-1000 nm
d) 1-10 micrometers
Answer: b) 20-300 nm

9. What is the protein shell that encloses the nucleic acid of a virus called?
a) Envelope
b) Capsid
c) Peplomer
d) Nucleocapsid
Answer: b) Capsid

10. What is the lipid-containing membrane that surrounds some viruses called?
a) Capsid
b) Envelope
c) Nucleocapsid
d) Peplomer
Answer: b) Envelope

11. Which of the following is a non-enveloped virus?
a) HIV
b) Influenza virus
c) Adenovirus
d) Herpesvirus
Answer: c) Adenovirus

12. What is the primary difference between bacteria and viruses?
a) Viruses have a cell wall
b) Bacteria can reproduce on their own
c) Viruses are larger than bacteria
d) Bacteria do not have DNA
Answer: b) Bacteria can reproduce on their own

13. Which of the following viruses is known to infect bacteria?
a) Adenovirus
b) Bacteriophage
c) Retrovirus
d) Herpesvirus
Answer: b) Bacteriophage

14. What is the first stage of viral replication?
a) Penetration
b) Attachment
c) Uncoating
d) Replication
Answer: b) Attachment

15. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a) Influenza virus
b) HIV
c) Herpesvirus
d) Coronavirus
Answer: c) Herpesvirus

16. What is the process by which enveloped viruses enter host cells?
a) Endocytosis
b) Fusion with the host cell membrane
c) Direct penetration
d) Phagocytosis
Answer: b) Fusion with the host cell membrane

17. What is the final stage of viral replication?
a) Assembly
b) Release
c) Penetration
d) Uncoating
Answer: b) Release

18. Which of the following is a nucleoside analog used in antiviral therapy?
a) Penicillin
b) Acyclovir
c) Tetracycline
d) Metronidazole
Answer: b) Acyclovir

19. What is the target of neuraminidase inhibitors in influenza treatment?
a) Viral DNA replication
b) Viral RNA replication
c) Viral release from host cells
d) Viral attachment to host cells
Answer: c) Viral release from host cells

20. Which of the following is an example of a neuraminidase inhibitor?
a) Acyclovir
b) Oseltamivir
c) Ribavirin
d) Ganciclovir
Answer: b) Oseltamivir

21. What is the primary function of interferons in viral infections?
a) To kill the virus directly
b) To inhibit viral replication
c) To enhance bacterial growth
d) To promote viral attachment
Answer: b) To inhibit viral replication

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of influenza viruses?
a) They are non-enveloped
b) They have a DNA genome
c) They are RNA viruses
d) They do not cause respiratory infections
Answer: c) They are RNA viruses

23. What is the primary mode of transmission for influenza viruses?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Droplets from sneezing and coughing
c) Contaminated food
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Droplets from sneezing and coughing

24. Which of the following is a common symptom of influenza?
a) Rash
b) Diarrhea
c) Fever
d) Jaundice
Answer: c) Fever

25. What is the primary site of influenza virus replication in the human body?
a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Respiratory tract
d) Stomach
Answer: c) Respiratory tract

26. Which of the following is a complication of influenza infection?
a) Hepatitis
b) Pneumonia
c) Meningitis
d) Gastritis
Answer: b) Pneumonia

27. What is the primary goal of antiviral therapy in influenza?
a) To cure the infection completely
b) To reduce morbidity and prevent complications
c) To enhance bacterial growth
d) To promote viral replication
Answer: b) To reduce morbidity and prevent complications

28. Which of the following is a limitation of antiviral therapy?
a) Viruses are easy to target
b) Antivirals can damage host cells
c) Antivirals are effective against all viruses
d) Viruses replicate outside the host cell
Answer: b) Antivirals can damage host cells

29. What is the role of neuraminidase in influenza virus replication?
a) It helps the virus attach to host cells
b) It helps the virus release from host cells
c) It helps the virus replicate its DNA
d) It helps the virus evade the immune system
Answer: b) It helps the virus release from host cells

30. Which of the following is a target for antiviral drugs in the viral replication cycle?
a) Host cell DNA replication
b) Viral attachment to host cells
c) Host cell protein synthesis
d) Host cell membrane structure
Answer: b) Viral attachment to host cells

31. What is the primary function of the viral capsid?
a) To protect the viral genome
b) To help the virus attach to host cells
c) To help the virus replicate
d) To help the virus evade the immune system
Answer: a) To protect the viral genome

32. Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA viruses?
a) They replicate in the nucleus
b) They have a DNA genome
c) They replicate in the cytoplasm
d) They are always enveloped
Answer: c) They replicate in the cytoplasm

33. What is the primary function of the viral envelope?
a) To protect the viral genome
b) To help the virus attach to host cells
c) To help the virus replicate
d) To help the virus evade the immune system
Answer: b) To help the virus attach to host cells

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of enveloped viruses?
a) They are resistant to disinfectants
b) They are more sensitive to extreme pH
c) They do not have glycoproteins
d) They are always non-pathogenic
Answer: b) They are more sensitive to extreme pH

35. What is the primary function of viral glycoproteins?
a) To protect the viral genome
b) To help the virus attach to host cells
c) To help the virus replicate
d) To help the virus evade the immune system
Answer: b) To help the virus attach to host cells

36. Which of the following is a characteristic of non-enveloped viruses?
a) They are more sensitive to disinfectants
b) They are less sensitive to extreme pH
c) They have a lipid membrane
d) They are always pathogenic
Answer: b) They are less sensitive to extreme pH

37. What is the primary function of the viral genome?
a) To protect the virus from the immune system
b) To encode viral proteins
c) To help the virus attach to host cells
d) To help the virus replicate
**Answer: b) To encode viral proteins

38. **Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA viruses?
a) They replicate in the cytoplasm
b) They have an RNA genome
c) They replicate in the nucleus
d) They are always enveloped
Answer: c) They replicate in the nucleus

39.What is the primary function of viral polymerases?
a) To help the virus attach to host cells
b) To help the virus replicate its genome
c) To help the virus evade the immune system
d) To help the virus release from host cells
Answer: b) To help the virus replicate its genome

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?
a) It is found in DNA viruses
b) It is used to replicate RNA genomes
c) It is found in bacteria
d) It is used to replicate DNA genomes
Answer: b) It is used to replicate RNA genomes**

Microbiology - Lecture 5 ↓

📍Paramyxoviridae Viruses :

1. Which of the following viruses belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family?
a) Influenza virus
b) Measles virus
c) Hepatitis B virus
d) Herpesvirus
Answer: b) Measles virus

2. How are Paramyxoviridae viruses primarily transmitted?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Respiratory droplets
c) Sexual contact
d) Contaminated food
Answer: b) Respiratory droplets

3. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Paramyxoviridae family?
a) Mumps virus
b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c) Measles virus
d) Rubella virus
Answer: d) Rubella virus

📍Mumps :

4. What is the primary symptom of mumps?
a) Rash
b) Swelling of the parotid glands
c) Diarrhea
d) Jaundice
Answer: b) Swelling of the parotid glands

5. How is the mumps virus transmitted?
a) Through contaminated water
b) Respiratory droplets
c) Sexual contact
d) Blood transfusion
Answer: b) Respiratory droplets

6. What is the incubation period for mumps?
a) 1-2 days
b) 2-4 weeks
c) 6-8 weeks
d) 3-5 days
Answer: b) 2-4 weeks

7. Which of the following is a complication of mumps in postpubertal males?
a) Oophoritis
b) Orchitis
c) Thyroiditis
d) Hepatitis
Answer: b) Orchitis

8. What is the primary method for diagnosing mumps?
a) Blood test
b) PCR and viral culture
c) Urine test
d) Stool sample
Answer: b) PCR and viral culture

9. What is the recommended vaccine for preventing mumps?
a) DTaP
b) MMR
c) HPV
d) Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: b) MMR

📍Measless :

10. What is the primary mode of transmission for the measles virus?
a) Contaminated food
b) Respiratory droplets
c) Blood transfusion
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Respiratory droplets

11. What is the incubation period for measles?
a) 1-2 days
b) 8-15 days
c) 3-4 weeks
d) 6-8 weeks
Answer: b) 8-15 days

12. Which of the following is a classic triad of symptoms in measles?
a) Fever, rash, and diarrhea
b) Conjunctivitis, cough, and coryza
c) Headache, vomiting, and abdominal pain
d) Jaundice, fatigue, and dark urine
Answer: b) Conjunctivitis, cough, and coryza

13. What are Koplik spots?
a) A type of rash
b) Tiny white spots inside the mouth
c) Swollen lymph nodes
d) A complication of measles
Answer: b) Tiny white spots inside the mouth

14. What is the primary treatment for measles?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Supportive care
c) Antibiotics
d) Surgery
Answer: b) Supportive care

15. Which vaccine is used to prevent measles?
a) DTaP
b) MMR
c) HPV
d) Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: b) MMR

📍Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) :

16. What is the primary cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants?
a) Influenza virus
b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c) Measles virus
d) Mumps virus
Answer: b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

17. How is RSV primarily transmitted?
a) Contaminated food
b) Respiratory droplets
c) Blood transfusion
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Respiratory droplets

18. What is the incubation period for RSV?
a) 1-2 days
b) 4-6 days
c) 1-2 weeks
d) 3-4 weeks
Answer: b) 4-6 days

19. Which of the following is a common symptom of RSV in infants?
a) Rash
b) Wheezing
c) Jaundice
d) Diarrhea
Answer: b) Wheezing

20. What is the primary treatment for RSV?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Supportive care
c) Antibiotics
d) Surgery
Answer: b) Supportive care

21. Which of the following is a risk factor for RSV infection?
a) High socioeconomic status
b) Minimal breastfeeding
c) Vaccination
d) Good hygiene
Answer: b)

📍Rubella :

22. What is the causative agent of rubella?
a) Bacteria
b) Single-stranded RNA virus
c) Double-stranded DNA virus
d) Fungus
Answer: b) Single-stranded RNA virus

23. How is rubella primarily transmitted?
a) Contaminated food
b) Respiratory droplets
c) Blood transfusion
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Respiratory droplets

24. What is the primary symptom of rubella?
a) Swelling of the parotid glands
b) Rash
c) Diarrhea
d) Jaundice
Answer: b) Rash

25. What is the incubation period for rubella?
a) 1-2 days
b) 1-5 days
c) 1-2 weeks
d) 3-4 weeks
Answer: b) 1-5 days

26. Which of the following is a complication of congenital rubella syndrome?
a) Cataracts
b) Orchitis
c) Thyroiditis
d) Hepatitis
Answer: a) Cataracts

27. What is the primary method for diagnosing rubella?
a) Blood test
b) PCR
c) Urine test
d) Stool sample
Answer: a) Blood test

28. What is the recommended vaccine for preventing rubella?
a) DTaP
b) MMR
c) HPV
d) Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: b) MMR

29. Which of the following viruses is enveloped?
a) Measles virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Poliovirus
d) Norovirus
Answer: a) Measles virus

30. Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA viruses?
a) They replicate in the nucleus
b) They have a DNA genome
c) They replicate in the cytoplasm
d) They are always non-enveloped
Answer: c) They replicate in the cytoplasm

31. What is the primary function of the viral envelope?
a) To protect the viral genome
b) To help the virus attach to host cells
c) To help the virus replicate
d) To help the virus evade the immune system
Answer: b) To help the virus attach to host cells

32. Which of the following is a characteristic of non-enveloped viruses?
a) They are more sensitive to disinfectants
b) They are less sensitive to extreme pH
c) They have a lipid membrane
d) They are always pathogenic
Answer: b) They are less sensitive to extreme pH

33. What is the primary function of the viral genome?
a) To protect the virus from the immune system
b) To encode viral proteins
c) To help the virus attach to host cells
d) To help the virus replicate
Answer: b) To encode viral proteins

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA viruses?
a) They replicate in the cytoplasm
b) They have an RNA genome
c) They replicate in the nucleus
d) They are always enveloped
Answer: c) They replicate in the nucleus

35. What is the primary function of viral polymerases?
a) To help the virus attach to host cells
b) To help the virus replicate its genome
c) To help the virus evade the immune system
d) To help the virus release from host cells
Answer: b) To help the virus replicate its genome

36. Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?
a) It is found in DNA viruses
b) It is used to replicate RNA genomes
c) It is found in bacteria
d) It is used to replicate DNA genomes
Answer: b) It is used to replicate RNA genomes

37. Which of the following is a target for antiviral drugs in the viral replication cycle?
a) Host cell DNA replication
b) Viral attachment to host cells
c) Host cell protein synthesis
d) Host cell membrane structure
Answer: b) Viral attachment to host cells

38. What is the primary function of the viral capsid?
a) To protect the viral genome
b) To help the virus attach to host cells
c) To help the virus replicate
d) To help the virus evade the immune system
Answer: a) To protect the viral genome

Microbiology - Lecture 6 ↓

📍Rotaviruses :

1. What type of virus is Rotavirus?
a) Single-stranded RNA virus
b) Double-stranded RNA virus
c) Single-stranded DNA virus
d) Double-stranded DNA virus
Answer: b) Double-stranded RNA virus

2. How is Rotavirus primarily transmitted?
a) Respiratory droplets
b) Fecal-oral route
c) Blood transfusion
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Fecal-oral route

3. What is the primary symptom of Rotavirus infection?
a) Rash
b) Watery diarrhea
c) Jaundice
d) Cough
Answer: b) Watery diarrhea

4. What is the incubation period for Rotavirus?
a) 1-3 days
b) 1-2 weeks
c) 3-4 weeks
d) 6-8 weeks
Answer: a) 1-3 days

5. What is the primary treatment for Rotavirus infection?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Supportive care (fluid and electrolyte replacement)
c) Antibiotics
d) Surgery
Answer: b) Supportive care (fluid and electrolyte replacement)

📍Rabies :

6. What type of virus causes Rabies?
a) Double-stranded DNA virus
b) Single-stranded RNA virus
c) Double-stranded RNA virus
d) Single-stranded DNA virus
Answer: b) Single-stranded RNA virus

7. How is Rabies primarily transmitted?
a) Respiratory droplets
b) Bites and scratches from infected mammals
c) Contaminated food
d) Blood transfusion
Answer: b) Bites and scratches from infected mammals

8. What is the incubation period for Rabies?
a) 1-3 days
b) 1-3 months
c) 6-8 weeks
d) 1-2 weeks
Answer: b) 1-3 months

9. What is the first phase of Rabies called?
a) Furious phase
b) Prodromal phase
c) Dumb phase
d) Coma phase
Answer: b) Prodromal phase

10. What is the primary treatment for Rabies exposure?
a) Antibiotics
b) Antiviral medication
c) Postexposure immunization (HRIG and HDCV)
d) Surgery
Answer: c) Postexposure immunization (HRIG and HDCV)

📍Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) :

11. What type of virus is Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)?
a) Double-stranded DNA virus
b) Single-stranded RNA virus
c) Double-stranded RNA virus
d) Single-stranded DNA virus
Answer: b) Single-stranded RNA virus

12. How is HAV primarily transmitted?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Fecal-oral route
c) Respiratory droplets
d) Sexual contact
Answer: b) Fecal-oral route

13. What is the incubation period for HAV?
a) 1-2 days
b) 2-7 weeks
c) 1-2 weeks
d) 6-8 weeks
Answer: b) 2-7 weeks

14. What is a common symptom of HAV infection?
a) Rash
b) Jaundice
c) Cough
d) Diarrhea
Answer: b) Jaundice

15. What is the primary treatment for HAV infection?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Supportive care
c) Antibiotics
d) Surgery
Answer: b) Supportive care

📍Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) :

16. What type of virus is Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)?
a) Double-stranded DNA virus
b) Single-stranded RNA virus
c) Double-stranded RNA virus
d) Single-stranded DNA virus
Answer: b) Single-stranded RNA virus

17. How is HCV primarily transmitted?
a) Respiratory droplets
b) Blood and body fluids
c) Contaminated food
d) Fecal-oral route
Answer: b) Blood and body fluids

18. What is the primary symptom of chronic HCV infection?
a) Jaundice
b) Dark urine
c) Asymptomatic for many years
d) Cough
Answer: c) Asymptomatic for many years

19. What is the primary treatment for chronic HCV infection?
a) Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir
b) Antibiotics
c) Supportive care
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir

20. What is a common complication of chronic HCV infection?
a) Cirrhosis
b) Rash
c) Cough
d) Diarrhea
Answer: a) Cirrhosis

📍 Hepatitis B virus (HBV) :

21. What type of virus is Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)?
a) Double-stranded DNA virus
b) Single-stranded RNA virus
c) Double-stranded RNA virus
d) Single-stranded DNA virus
Answer: a) Double-stranded DNA virus

22. How is HBV primarily transmitted?
a) Respiratory droplets
b) Blood and body fluids
c) Contaminated food
d) Fecal-oral route
Answer: b) Blood and body fluids

23. What is the incubation period for HBV?
a) 1-6 months
b) 1-2 weeks
c) 2-7 weeks
d) 6-8 weeks
Answer: a) 1-6 months

24. What is a common symptom of acute HBV infection?
a) Jaundice
b) Rash
c) Cough
d) Diarrhea
Answer: a) Jaundice

25. What is the primary treatment for chronic HBV infection?
a) Entecavir
b) Antibiotics
c) Supportive care
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Entecavir

26. What is the recommended vaccination schedule for HBV?
a) 0, 1, and 6 months
b) 0, 2, and 4 months
c) 0, 1, and 2 months
d) 0, 1, and 12 months
Answer: a) 0, 1, and 6 months

27. What is the primary reservoir for Rabies?
a) Birds
b) Wild mammals
c) Reptiles
d) Fish
Answer: b) Wild mammals

28. What is the primary site of replication for HAV?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) Stomach
Answer: a) Liver

29. What is the primary site of replication for HCV?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) Stomach
Answer: a) Liver

30. What is the primary site of replication for HBV?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) Stomach
Answer: a) Liver

31. What is the primary diagnostic marker for acute HBV infection?
a) IgM anti-HBc
b) IgG anti-HBc
c) HBsAg
d) HBeAg
Answer: a) IgM anti-HBc

32. What is the primary diagnostic marker for chronic HBV infection?
a) HBsAg
b) IgM anti-HBc
c) IgG anti-HBc
d) HBeAg
Answer: a) HBsAg

33. What is the primary treatment for chronic HBV infection?
a) Peginterferon alfa-2a
b) Antibiotics
c) Supportive care
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Peginterferon alfa-2a

34. What is the primary prevention method for HBV?
a) Vaccination
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral medication
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Vaccination

35. What is the primary prevention method for HAV?
a) Vaccination
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral medication
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Vaccination

36. What is the primary prevention method for HCV?
a) Vaccination
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral medication
d) No vaccine available
Answer: d) No vaccine available

37. What is the primary prevention method for Rabies?
a) Vaccination of domestic animals
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral medication
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Vaccination of domestic animals

38. What is the primary prevention method for Rotavirus?
a) Vaccination
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral medication
d) Surgery
Answer: a) Vaccination

39. What is the primary diagnostic marker for acute HAV infection?
a) IgM anti-HAV
b) IgG anti-HAV
c) HBsAg
d) HBeAg
Answer: a) IgM anti-HAV

40. What is the primary diagnostic marker for chronic HCV infection?
a) HCV RNA
b) IgM anti-HCV
c) IgG anti-HCV
d) HBsAg
Answer: a) HCV RNA

Microbiology :
Lecture 1
Lecture 2 " Cases "
Lecture 2 MCQS
Lecture 4
Lecture 5
Lecture 6
Lecture 7
Lecture 8
Lecture 9