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Case-based MCQ | #Case_337

A previously healthy 60-year-old male is diagnosed with multiple myeloma after a workup for an incidental finding on routine laboratory work. He has no identified organ or tissue damage and is asymptomatic.
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Which one of the following would be appropriate treatment of this patient’s condition?
Anonymous Poll
39%
a) No treatment
29%
b) Chemotherapy
21%
c) Autologous stem cell transplantation
10%
d) Radiation
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Case-based MCQ | #Case_337 | #answer


A

This patient has smoldering (asymptomatic) multiple myeloma. He does not have any organ or tissue damage related to this disease and has no symptoms. Early treatment of these patients does not improve mortality and may increase the likelihood of developing acute leukemia. The standard treatment for symptomatic patients under age 65 is autologous stem cell transplantation. Patients over 65 who are healthy enough to undergo transplantation would also be appropriate candidates. Patients who are not candidates for autologous stem cell transplantation generally receive melphalan and prednisolone with or without thalidomide. Radiotherapy can be used to relieve metastatic bone pain or spinal cord compression.
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Case-based MCQ | #Case_338

A 34 year old man presents with slow progressive dysphagia. He has been using H2 blockers for the last year because of retrosternal discomfort. He has not noticed any weight loss. A haemoglobin level was done a month ago which reads 13.3g/dL.
Case-based MCQ | #Case_338 | #answer


D

Peptic strictures have an association with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can cause dysphagia. The fact that there is no weight loss and haemoglobin is normal points towards a benign cause. Esophageal cancer at this age group is also uncommon.
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Case-based MCQ | #Case_339

A 35 year old lady presents with urinary incontinence 4 months after having a normal vaginal delivery of her second child. She says that she urinates a little every time she sneezes or coughs. On a speculum examintion, there are no anatomical abnormalities.
Case-based MCQ | #Case_339 | #answer


E

This lady is suffering from stress incontinence as evident by small amounts of urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. The best management would be pelvic floor exercises.

Tension-free vaginal tape operation should only be considered after trying conservative methods for treatment of stress incontinence.
Bladder drill (retraining) is a method used for detrusor instability and nto stress incontinence.

Ring pessary is of no use here as there is no cystocele.

Loss of weight, and reducing caffeine are other lifestyle modifications that could be effective but were not given in this questions.
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Case-based MCQ | #Case_340

You are called to the newborn nursery to see a baby with a deformed foot. The affected foot is shorter and smaller than the other. The heel is turned downward and inward, while the front of the foot is curved inwardly. The medial crease of the foot is accentuated. The foot has almost no flexibility. You diagnose a unilateral rigid club foot deformity.
Case-based MCQ | #Case_340 | #answer


C

Most of these children are healthy infants with a clubfoot of unknown cause and will crawl, stand, and walk. Untreated, this condition may result in severe disability and deformity.

 Rigid clubfoot may respond to manipulation and casting. However, if these interventions fail, surgery will be required (choice A).

 The male‐to‐female ratio is 2:1 (choice B). Bilateral involvement is found in 30‐50% of cases. There is a 10% chance of a subsequent child being affected if the parents already have a child with a clubfoot.

 Very early intervention may produce a shorter treatment period, but if conservative treatment fails (casting), surgery may be required followed by casting and bracing. Patients must then be followed for any evidence of recurrence (choice D).

 Even with successful treatment, the foot may be smaller and possibly less mobile than the normal foot; however, most children will still be able to participate fully in normal activities (choice E).
Case-based MCQ | #Case_341

A 65‐year‐old white male comes to your office with a 0.5‐cm nodule that has developed on his right forearm over the past 4 weeks. The lesion is dome shaped and has a central plug. You schedule a biopsy but he does not return to your office for 1 year. At that time the lesion appears to have healed spontaneously. 
Case-based MCQ | #Case_341 | #answer


E
Keratoacanthoma grows rapidly and may heal within 6 months to a year. Squamous cell carcinoma may appear grossly and histologically similar to keratoacanthoma but does not heal spontaneously. The other lesions do not resemble keratoacanthoma
A 15-year-old female with Down syndrome will compete in Special Olympics gymnastics. She should be evaluated prior to completion due to the potential risk for subluxation of her:
Anonymous Poll
13%
a. Patella
9%
b. Calcaneus
21%
c. Hip
10%
d. Radial head
47%
e. Atlantoaxial joint
Case-based MCQ | #Case_342 | #answer


E

Patients with Down syndrome have a 15% increased incidence of atlantoaxial instability (AAI). There is a resulting risk of spinal cord injury in these patients. Certain sports are contraindicated for those with AAI, including gymnastics, and radiographs should be obtained prior to participation.
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Case-based MCQ | #Case_343

A primigravida in her 7th gestational week was brought to hospital with severe nausea and vomiting of three days duration. No other symptoms could be elicited. Physical examination is as follows: pulse rate 108 bpm, respiratory rate 17/min, blood pressure 98/58 mmHg and body temperature 37.1°C; diminished skin turgor and dry oral mucous membrane and the rest of physical examination was normal. With appropriate work‐up the diagnosis of Hyperemesis Gravidarum was established. Some of her lab results are as follows:
pH 7.42
[HCO‐3] 24mmol/L
PaCO2 39mmHg
Serum sodium 140mmol/L
Serum potassium 3.7mmol/L
Serum chloride 95mmol/L
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