WIZARDS OF WISDOM

Forwarded from bill

The Aramaic for Judahites was used in Ezra and Daniel. This is because the Aramaic language was used in Babylon where the house of Judah was in captivity, which the Jews proudly boast that they have never been in bondage to no man, proving they are not Israelites, because Israelites were in bondage in Egypt, Assyria, and Babylon. And we still are today in Mystery Babylon, which is the Jewish Matrix of Deceit, controlled through banking, the media, legal fraud, and consumerism, all controlled by Jews.

H3064 yahudiym is used 75x and was replaced with 'Jews'. Yahudiym are Judahites. It's used in 2Kings, Nehemiah, Esther, Jeremiah, Zechariah. These books were specifically about the house of Judah. Judahites.

So everytime you see the word 'Jew' in the OT, it never is identifying a Jew.

You need to know that every time you see 'Jew' in the OT, you should understand that it's identifying Israelites of the house of Judah. Judahites.

The NT is a whole nother animal.

The word 'Jew' also replaced the Greek word for Judah in the NT.

Judah in the NT Greek is Ioudaios, which is a Judahite.

Everywhere you see 'Jew', it should read Judaean, and it refers to Judahites of the house of Judah, and sometimes it is referring to Jews.

This is the tricky part that fools the unlearned

Jews in the NT replaced Ioudaios which is a Judahite, but it can be referring to an Edomite, and is an Edomite many times, especially in the Gospel of John. Don't forget, there were deceived Judahites who were brainwashed whom Yahshua was exhorting and at the same time condemning the Edomites.

This is because there were Judahite and Edomite Judaeans.

There were Judahite and Edomites in the priesthood and on the council.

The Judahites could repent and follow Christ, because they were of Christ. The Jews would not and could not repent, because they are not of Christ, they were of their father the Devil. Devils don't repent and devils do not enter into the kingdom of heaven.

The word 'Jew' in the NT should always be either Judahites or Judaeans, because it (Ioudaios) is the equivalent of the Hebrew word yahudah, which is one from the tribe of Judah or the house of Judah.

A Judahite is never a Jew. A Judaean can be an Israelite or a Jew, because at that point in history Judaea was occupied by Israelites and Canaanite-Edomite Jews.

Knowing some scriptural history is important to understanding the mystery.

Here is some history regarding the land of Judah and the land of Idumea.

Judah was the land of the tribe of Judah. This was land inhabited by Israelites of the house of Judah.

Idumea was the land of the tribes of Esau. This land was inhabited by Edomites of the house of Esau.

During the 1st century BC, the land of Judah was forcibly merged with the land of Idumea, which is how we got the name Judaea for the land once known as Judah.

Judaea in the Greek is Ioudaia. If the lands of Judah and Idumea were never merged, the land of Judah would have been Iouda in the Greek.

So instead of Judah being Israelite land with Israelites living in it, and Idumea being Edomite land with Edomite Jews living in it, those lands were merged and Jews and Israelites were forced to live together. Jews were forced to be circumcised and adopt the faith of the Israelites.

So a Judaean at this time was not only a Judahite Israelite of the house of Judah, but also included Edomite Jews of Idumea.

The faith of the Israelites before it was called Christianity, was called The Way. When the Jews were assimilated into the land they turned Christianity into Judaism which later became Judeo-Christianity. Which is an abomination.

So you must be Jew savvy to be able to tell who is Jew and who is Judah in the NT.

And you must be doctrinal savvy to be able to tell the difference between 33K denominational beliefs and The Belief.

G2453 Ioudaios was replaced by Jew 196x in the NT. Ioudaios are Judahites.

Every time it should read 'Judaean'. Which could be referring to an Edomite Jewish Judaean, or an Israelite Judahite Judaean.

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