Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
56%
1 only
7%
2 only
29%
Both 1 and 2
8%
Neither 1 nor 2
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️The Public Debt of India is classified into three categories of Union Government liabilities—internal debt, external debt and other liabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️Internal debt for Government of India largely consists of fixed tenure and fixed rate government papers (dated securities and treasury bills), which are issued through auctions.
▪️External debt represents loans received from foreign governments and multilateral institutions. The union government does not borrow directly from international capital markets. Its foreign currency borrowing takes place from multilateral agencies and bilateral sources, and is a part of official development assistance (ODA). At present, the Government of India does not borrow in the international capital markets.
▪️“Other” liabilities, not a part of public debt, includes other interest bearing obligations of the government, such as post office saving deposits, deposits under small savings schemes, loans raised through post office cash certificates, provident funds and certain other deposits.
▪️ The Reserve Bank manages the public debt of the central and the state governments and also acts as a banker to them under the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (Section 20 and 21). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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▪️The Public Debt of India is classified into three categories of Union Government liabilities—internal debt, external debt and other liabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️Internal debt for Government of India largely consists of fixed tenure and fixed rate government papers (dated securities and treasury bills), which are issued through auctions.
▪️External debt represents loans received from foreign governments and multilateral institutions. The union government does not borrow directly from international capital markets. Its foreign currency borrowing takes place from multilateral agencies and bilateral sources, and is a part of official development assistance (ODA). At present, the Government of India does not borrow in the international capital markets.
▪️“Other” liabilities, not a part of public debt, includes other interest bearing obligations of the government, such as post office saving deposits, deposits under small savings schemes, loans raised through post office cash certificates, provident funds and certain other deposits.
▪️ The Reserve Bank manages the public debt of the central and the state governments and also acts as a banker to them under the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (Section 20 and 21). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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Q. With reference to the Economic Census, consider the following statements:
1. The 7th Economic Census was conducted in 2019 under the Capacity Development Scheme.
2. It was conducted by the Ministry of Finance.
1. The 7th Economic Census was conducted in 2019 under the Capacity Development Scheme.
2. It was conducted by the Ministry of Finance.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
40%
1 only
20%
2 only
32%
Both 1 and 2
8%
Neither 1 nor 2
💯1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️Economic Census (EC) is an ongoing sub scheme under capacity development scheme of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
▪️It is the complete count of all non-farm economic establishments located within the geographical boundary of the country.
▪️It provides disaggregated information on various operational and structural variables of all such establishments of the country. Economic Census also provides valuable insight into geographical spread/clusters of economic activities, ownership pattern, persons engaged, etc., of all economic establishments in the country.
▪️The 7th Economic Census was conducted in 2019 under the Capacity Development Scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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▪️Economic Census (EC) is an ongoing sub scheme under capacity development scheme of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
▪️It is the complete count of all non-farm economic establishments located within the geographical boundary of the country.
▪️It provides disaggregated information on various operational and structural variables of all such establishments of the country. Economic Census also provides valuable insight into geographical spread/clusters of economic activities, ownership pattern, persons engaged, etc., of all economic establishments in the country.
▪️The 7th Economic Census was conducted in 2019 under the Capacity Development Scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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Which one of the following departments of the Ministry of Finance is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to public sector banks (PSBs) and financial institutions:
Anonymous Quiz
60%
Department of Financial Services
33%
Department of Economic Affairs
6%
Revenue Department
1%
Expenditure Department
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions including their functioning, appointment of Chairman, Managing Director and Chief Executive Officers (MD & CEOs), Executive Directors (EDs), Chairman cum Managing Directors (CMDs), legislative matters, international banking relations.
▪️Appointment of Governor/Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India, matters relating to National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), Agriculture Finance Corporation, Co- operative Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and rural/agriculture credit.
▪️The Department also administers the financial inclusion programme of the government; social security schemes and other targeted schemes aimed at facilitating flow of credit; matters relating to insurance sector and performance of public sector insurance companies; administration of various Insurance Acts; matters relating to Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), statutory body, and matters relating to pension reforms including the New Pension System (NPS), etc., and matters relating to pension reforms including the New Pension System (NPS), etc.
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▪️The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions including their functioning, appointment of Chairman, Managing Director and Chief Executive Officers (MD & CEOs), Executive Directors (EDs), Chairman cum Managing Directors (CMDs), legislative matters, international banking relations.
▪️Appointment of Governor/Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India, matters relating to National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), Agriculture Finance Corporation, Co- operative Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and rural/agriculture credit.
▪️The Department also administers the financial inclusion programme of the government; social security schemes and other targeted schemes aimed at facilitating flow of credit; matters relating to insurance sector and performance of public sector insurance companies; administration of various Insurance Acts; matters relating to Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), statutory body, and matters relating to pension reforms including the New Pension System (NPS), etc., and matters relating to pension reforms including the New Pension System (NPS), etc.
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Q. With reference to the difference between Criminal law and Civil law, consider the following statements:
1. Under Civil law, a complaint against an accused can only be filed by the Government and never by an individual.
2. The burden of proving the evidence in both Civil and Criminal laws always lie on the complainant.
1. Under Civil law, a complaint against an accused can only be filed by the Government and never by an individual.
2. The burden of proving the evidence in both Civil and Criminal laws always lie on the complainant.
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Which of the above statement is/are NOT correct?
Anonymous Quiz
13%
1 only
21%
2 only
37%
Both 1 and 2
30%
Neither 1 nor 2
👍1🔥1🤯1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️In Civil law, the initiation of a case starts with the filing of a complaint by the aggrieved party (individual) against the wrongdoer, whereas in Criminal Law, the case is filed by the Government against the accused. Statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The criminal offense usually begins with First Information Report (FIR).
▪️It can be lodged by
- aggrieved person himself/herself
- Any person who is aware of the offence like an eye witness, by the accused himself, hearsay account.
- Officer in charge of police station/SHO
▪️The burden of proving the evidence in Civil Law lies on the plaintiff (complainant), whereas in Criminal Law it lies on the State. In Civil Law, the punishment is given in terms of compensation. Statement 2 is not correct.
▪️Here the wrongdoer reimburses the other party the amount of loss sustained by him as decided by the court. Whereas in Criminal Law the guilty is punished by incarceration with or without fine, or in some rarest of rare cases with the death penalty.
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▪️In Civil law, the initiation of a case starts with the filing of a complaint by the aggrieved party (individual) against the wrongdoer, whereas in Criminal Law, the case is filed by the Government against the accused. Statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The criminal offense usually begins with First Information Report (FIR).
▪️It can be lodged by
- aggrieved person himself/herself
- Any person who is aware of the offence like an eye witness, by the accused himself, hearsay account.
- Officer in charge of police station/SHO
▪️The burden of proving the evidence in Civil Law lies on the plaintiff (complainant), whereas in Criminal Law it lies on the State. In Civil Law, the punishment is given in terms of compensation. Statement 2 is not correct.
▪️Here the wrongdoer reimburses the other party the amount of loss sustained by him as decided by the court. Whereas in Criminal Law the guilty is punished by incarceration with or without fine, or in some rarest of rare cases with the death penalty.
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Q. With reference to the removal of High court judges, consider the following statements:
1. The president can issue the removal order of a judge only after the address of the State Legislature has been presented to him in the same session.
2. The committee formed to investigate the charges should consist of the Chief Justice of a High Court.
1. The president can issue the removal order of a judge only after the address of the State Legislature has been presented to him in the same session.
2. The committee formed to investigate the charges should consist of the Chief Justice of a High Court.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
1 only
50%
2 only
25%
Both 1 and 2
19%
Neither 1 nor 2
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️The judges of High Courts in India are removed by President. The president can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal.
▪️The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The Constitution under Article 124(4) has provided for the impeachment of judges on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity but the Constitution has not given any mandate till date as to what constitutes ‘misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’.
▪️Thus, a judge of a high court can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
▪️The committee formed to investigate the charges for removal of HC judge must consist of Chief Justice of High Court.
▪️The Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the charges. The committee should consist of - the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court, chief justice of a high court, and a distinguished jurist. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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▪️The judges of High Courts in India are removed by President. The president can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal.
▪️The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The Constitution under Article 124(4) has provided for the impeachment of judges on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity but the Constitution has not given any mandate till date as to what constitutes ‘misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’.
▪️Thus, a judge of a high court can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
▪️The committee formed to investigate the charges for removal of HC judge must consist of Chief Justice of High Court.
▪️The Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the charges. The committee should consist of - the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court, chief justice of a high court, and a distinguished jurist. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q. Which of the following statements is correct about the Supreme court’s power to review under Article 137?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
It can examine the constitutionality of executive orders of only the Central government
69%
It can review its own judgments and orders
18%
It can review all the judgments and orders passed by the High Court through appeal
4%
It can review all international laws and treaties of which India is a signatory
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️Statement a is incorrect.
Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the Supreme Court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the Government.
▪️Statement b is correct.
Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. This power is however subject to the Rules made by the Supreme Court under Article 145, as well as the provisions of any law enacted by parliament. Further, as per the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, a review Petition must be filed within 30 days from the judgment.
▪️Statement c is incorrect.
The Supreme Court has also a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals in India. Under appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can hear the cases delivered by High Court through appeal. It may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in the territory of India.
▪️Statement d is incorrect.
The Indian judiciary has the power to interpret the obligation of India in international law by adjudicating domestic cases concerning issues of international law. The statement is incorrect because the judiciary has no role in reviewing any of the international treaties though the President of India can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any dispute arising on any treaty or agreement.
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▪️Statement a is incorrect.
Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the Supreme Court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the Government.
▪️Statement b is correct.
Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. This power is however subject to the Rules made by the Supreme Court under Article 145, as well as the provisions of any law enacted by parliament. Further, as per the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, a review Petition must be filed within 30 days from the judgment.
▪️Statement c is incorrect.
The Supreme Court has also a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals in India. Under appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can hear the cases delivered by High Court through appeal. It may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in the territory of India.
▪️Statement d is incorrect.
The Indian judiciary has the power to interpret the obligation of India in international law by adjudicating domestic cases concerning issues of international law. The statement is incorrect because the judiciary has no role in reviewing any of the international treaties though the President of India can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any dispute arising on any treaty or agreement.
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