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Q. With reference to the railways during the British rule, consider the following statements:

1. The railway lines were laid primarily with a view of political and economic development of the Indians.
2. The first phase of railways was built as the state enterprise.
3. Lord Dalhousie was an ardent advocate of rapid railway construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 and 3 only
74%
3 only
9%
1 and 2 only
10%
1, 2 and 3
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️ The earliest suggestion to build a railway in India was made in Madras in 1831.
▪️ Lord Dalhousie, who became Governor-General of India in 1849, was an ardent advocate of rapid railway construction. Hence statement 3 is correct.

▪️ Railways in India developed in three phases-
Phase 1 (1853-1869):
- Railways were built by private companies who were guaranteed a minimum of five per cent return on their capital. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Phase 2 (1869-1880)
- Private companies proved very costly and slow, thus in 1869 Britishers decided to build new railways as a state enterprise.
Phase 3 (After 1880):
- After 1880, railways were built through private enterprise as well as through state agencies.

▪️The railway lines were laid primarily with a view to linking India's raw material producing areas in the interior with the ports of export. At no stage of railway development, the economic and political development of India and her people was considered. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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Q. Which of the following were the reasons behind the introduction of the Permanent Settlement by the Britishers:

1. They were in need to create political allies.
2. They wanted financial security for the company.
3. They expected that the Permanent Settlement would increase agricultural production.
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Which of the above statements are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
31%
1 and 2 only
7%
1 and 3 only
33%
2 and 3 only
28%
1, 2, and 3
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis.
▪️Under this land revenue system, Britishers recognised the zamindars and revenue collectors as the owner of the land.
▪️Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable.
▪️The reasons for the recognition of Zamindars as landlord were three-fold:
1. the need to create political allies.
2. to ensure financial security for the company.
3. As land revenue remained fixed, even if the Zamindar's income went up, he would focus on improving agricultural productivity.

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Q. With reference to the Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:

1. Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body.
2. The tenure of Law Commission is for three years.
3. It has no fixed composition, no defined eligibility criteria for its chair and members, and no set functions
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
33%
1 and 2 only
21%
2 and 3 only
19%
1 and 3 only
27%
1, 2 and 3
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

Law Commission of India:

▪️Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body, it is an executive body (non-statutory body) established by an order of the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️The Commission is established for a fixed tenure (3 years) and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️The first law Commission was established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay which recommended codification of the Penal Code and the Criminal Procedure Code.
▪️The Indian Code of Civil Procedure, the Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act, the Transfer of Property Act. etc. are products of the first four Law Commissions.
▪️The Government of India established the First Law Commission of Independent India in 1955 with the then Attorney-General of India, Mr M. C. Setalvad, as its Chairman. Since then twenty one more Law Commissions have been appointed, each with a three-year term.
▪️It has no fixed composition, no defined eligibility criteria for its chair and members, and no set functions. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, almost all universities have a chancellor as their titular head whose function is largely ceremonial.
2. The governor of the state is honorary chancellor of all State owned universities.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
1 only
20%
2 only
64%
Both 1 and 2
6%
Neither 1 nor 2
🤩4
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️In India, almost all universities have a chancellor as their titular head whose function is largely ceremonial. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️The governor of the state, appointed as the union’s representative of state by the president, is the honorary chancellor of all State owned universities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️The de facto head of any government university is the vice-chancellor.
▪️In private non-profit universities, normally the head of the foundation who has established the university is the chancellor of the university and is the head of the university.
▪️Under the Central Universities Act, 2009, and other statutes, the President of India shall be the Visitor of a central university.
▪️With their role limited to presiding over convocations, Chancellors in central universities are titular heads, who are appointed by the President in his capacity as Visitor.

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Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Fertilisers comes under the ambit of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. The main objective of the Department is to ensure adequate and timely availability of fertilisers at affordable prices for maximising agricultural production in the country.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
3%
1 only
61%
2 only
30%
Both 1 and 2
5%
Neither 1 nor 2
👍1🏆1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️Department of Fertilisers comes under the ambit of Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The main objective of the Department is to ensure adequate and timely availability of fertilisers at affordable prices for maximising agricultural production in the country. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️The main unctions of the Department include planning, promotion and development of the Fertilisers industry, planning and monitoring of production; import and distribution of fertilisers and management of financial assistance by way of subsidy/concession for indigenous and imported fertilisers.
▪️The Department has one attached office under it, viz., Fertilisers Industry Coordination Committee (FICC). It also administers 9 Fertilizer Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).

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Q. Global Biodiversity Outlook Report is released by
Anonymous Quiz
35%
UNEP
19%
UNFCCC
41%
CBD
5%
CITES
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
▪️The second meeting of the Conference of the Parties called for the preparation of a periodic report on biological diversity: the Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO).
▪️It suggested that the GBO should provide a summary of the status of biological diversity and an analysis of the steps being taken by the global community to ensure that biodiversity is conserved and used sustainably, and that benefits arising from the use of genetic resources are shared equitably. Four editions of the report have been prepared.
▪️Until now five editions of GBO has been published.

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Q. With reference to the CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), consider the following statements:

1. Commercial trade is prohibited for the species listed in the Appendix I of the CITES.
2. Commercial trade is regulated for the species listed in the Appendix II of the CITES.
3. CITES is not a legally binding convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
72%
1 and 2 only
8%
1 and 3 only
5%
2 and 3 only
15%
1, 2, and 3
🤔1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+

▪️CITES (shorter name for the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, also known as the Washington Convention) is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade.

▪️It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into force on 1 July 1975.

▪️Appendices: Over 38,000 species, subspecies and populations are protected under CITES.
- Each protected taxa or population is included in one of three lists called Appendices.
- The Appendix that lists a taxa or population reflects the level of the threat posed by international trade and the CITES controls that apply.

▪️Appendix I taxa are those that are threatened with extinction and to which the highest level of CITES protection is afforded. Commercial trade in wild-sourced specimens of these taxa is not permitted and non-commercial trade is strictly controlled by requiring an import permit and export permit to be granted by the relevant Management Authorities in each country before the trade occurs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️Appendix II taxa are those that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, but trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival. Appendix II taxa may also include species similar in appearance to species already listed in the Appendices. Commercial trade is regulated for the species listed in the Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️Appendix III species are those that are protected in at least one country, and that country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade. Any trade in Appendix III species standardly requires a CITES export permit (if sourced from the country that listed the species) or a certificate of origin (from any other country) to be granted before the trade occurs.

▪️Hence statement 3 is incorrect. CITES is a legally binding convention on the signing party.

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