#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
Wood's Dispatch:
- Wood’s Dispatch is considered to be the “Magna Carta of Education” in India.
- The Dispatch is a comprehensive important educational document and holds a unique place in the history of Indian education.
- It placed the responsibility of education of the Indian people fully on the company and made it quite clear that it must never be neglected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Dispatch gave new direction to education in India and which has its impact on today’s education in the country.
- It rejected the downward filtration theory. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- It asked to open the Department of Education in all provinces. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Wood's Dispatch:
- Wood’s Dispatch is considered to be the “Magna Carta of Education” in India.
- The Dispatch is a comprehensive important educational document and holds a unique place in the history of Indian education.
- It placed the responsibility of education of the Indian people fully on the company and made it quite clear that it must never be neglected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Dispatch gave new direction to education in India and which has its impact on today’s education in the country.
- It rejected the downward filtration theory. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- It asked to open the Department of Education in all provinces. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Q. With reference to the amendments made to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The very first Constitutional Amendment Act added articles 15(4) and 19(6).
2. State reorganization was main objective of the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. 71st Constitutional Amendment Act amended the 8th Schedule.
1. The very first Constitutional Amendment Act added articles 15(4) and 19(6).
2. State reorganization was main objective of the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. 71st Constitutional Amendment Act amended the 8th Schedule.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
1 and 2 only
38%
2 and 3 only
16%
1 and 3 only
28%
1, 2, 3
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️The First Amendment was passed in 1951 by the Provisional Parliament, members of who had just finished drafting the Constitution as part of the Constitutional Assembly.
▪️The First Amendment Act amended articles 15, 19, 85, 87, 174, 176, 341, 342, 372 and 376. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️It added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from the judicial review. After Article 31, Articles 31A and 31B were inserted.
▪️The 7th Amendment of Indian Constitution was needed to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission regarding the reorganization of the states on a linguistic basis. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️It paved way for doing away with classification of states in A, B, C and D categories and introduced of Union Territories.
▪️The Seventy-First Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule. With this, the total number of scheduled languages increased to 18. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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▪️The First Amendment was passed in 1951 by the Provisional Parliament, members of who had just finished drafting the Constitution as part of the Constitutional Assembly.
▪️The First Amendment Act amended articles 15, 19, 85, 87, 174, 176, 341, 342, 372 and 376. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪️It added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from the judicial review. After Article 31, Articles 31A and 31B were inserted.
▪️The 7th Amendment of Indian Constitution was needed to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission regarding the reorganization of the states on a linguistic basis. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪️It paved way for doing away with classification of states in A, B, C and D categories and introduced of Union Territories.
▪️The Seventy-First Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule. With this, the total number of scheduled languages increased to 18. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Q. Consider the following statements regarding the office of Governor:
1. The provision of the appointment of a Governor was adopted from the Australian Constitution.
2. In India, President appoints the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
3. The appointment of one person as a Governor of two or more states was provided under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
1. The provision of the appointment of a Governor was adopted from the Australian Constitution.
2. In India, President appoints the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
3. The appointment of one person as a Governor of two or more states was provided under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 and 2 only
62%
2 and 3 only
16%
3 only
16%
1, 2 and 3
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️Statement 1 is not correct: Federation with strong Centre, the appointment of Governor by the Centre, vesting residuary powers with the Centre etc. are the provisions of the Indian Constitution that are adopted from the Canadian Constitution.
▪️Statement 2 is correct: The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal but the Supreme Court in 1979 held that the office of Governor is not under the control of Central government. The Office of Governor is not an employment under the Central Government.
▪️Statement 3 is correct: Article 153-167 of the Indian Constitution deals with the state executive. The Governor is the chief executive head of the state as well as the agent of the Central government in the state, thereby exercising a dual role in the Indian political system. In the original constitution, there was a provision for the Governor for each state but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 provided for the appointment of one person as the Governor of two or more states.
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▪️Statement 1 is not correct: Federation with strong Centre, the appointment of Governor by the Centre, vesting residuary powers with the Centre etc. are the provisions of the Indian Constitution that are adopted from the Canadian Constitution.
▪️Statement 2 is correct: The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal but the Supreme Court in 1979 held that the office of Governor is not under the control of Central government. The Office of Governor is not an employment under the Central Government.
▪️Statement 3 is correct: Article 153-167 of the Indian Constitution deals with the state executive. The Governor is the chief executive head of the state as well as the agent of the Central government in the state, thereby exercising a dual role in the Indian political system. In the original constitution, there was a provision for the Governor for each state but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 provided for the appointment of one person as the Governor of two or more states.
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https://samajho.com/upsc/belated-but-essential-virtual-digital-assets-and-the-prevention-of-money-laundering-act-pmla-11th-march-2023-upsc-daily-editorial-analysis/
Belated, but essential - Virtual Digital Assets and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) | 11th March 2023 | UPSC Daily Editorial Analysis
Belated, but essential - Virtual Digital Assets and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) | 11th March 2023 | UPSC Daily Editorial Analysis
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Belated, but essential - Virtual Digital Assets and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) | 11th March 2023 | UPSC Daily…
What's the article about? It talks about the recent decision of the Union Finance Ministry to bring in virtual digital assets under the purview of the
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Q. Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President:
1. Impeachment charges can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only.
2. The nominated members of both Houses of Parliament cannot take part in impeachment proceedings.
3. No President has been so far impeached from his post.
1. Impeachment charges can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only.
2. The nominated members of both Houses of Parliament cannot take part in impeachment proceedings.
3. No President has been so far impeached from his post.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1 and 2 only
66%
3 only
20%
2 and 3 only
10%
1, 2 and 3
🏆1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution‘. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the Constitution‘.
▪️The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days‘ notice should be given to the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
▪️In the History of the Indian Republic, no Indian President has been so far "impeached" from his post. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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▪️The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution‘. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the Constitution‘.
▪️The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days‘ notice should be given to the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
▪️The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
▪️In the History of the Indian Republic, no Indian President has been so far "impeached" from his post. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
1 only
10%
2 only
71%
Both 1 and 2
9%
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to the measurement of biodiversity, consider the following statements:
1. Species Richness represents the number of different species in a given habitat.
2. Species Evenness is the measure of relative abundance of different species in the area.
1. Species Richness represents the number of different species in a given habitat.
2. Species Evenness is the measure of relative abundance of different species in the area.
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#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️Species richness and species evenness are two different biodiversity indices, which influence and support the stability of an ecosystem.
▪️Statement 1 is correct. Species richness is defined as the number of different species present in a given area, region or in a particular ecosystem.
▪️Statement 2 is correct. Species evenness refers to the relative abundance of each species in a particular area and it is a measure of whether a particular ecosystem is numerically dominated by one species or is represented by a similar number of species. Species evenness compares the number of individuals between species to produce a relative abundance of each species.
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▪️Species richness and species evenness are two different biodiversity indices, which influence and support the stability of an ecosystem.
▪️Statement 1 is correct. Species richness is defined as the number of different species present in a given area, region or in a particular ecosystem.
▪️Statement 2 is correct. Species evenness refers to the relative abundance of each species in a particular area and it is a measure of whether a particular ecosystem is numerically dominated by one species or is represented by a similar number of species. Species evenness compares the number of individuals between species to produce a relative abundance of each species.
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is undisturbed by the humans.
2. Norman Myers developed the concept of biodiversity hotspot.
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is undisturbed by the humans.
2. Norman Myers developed the concept of biodiversity hotspot.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
1 only
39%
2 only
47%
Both 1 and 2
5%
Neither 1 nor 2
👌1
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
▪️Statement 1 is incorrect. A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from the humans (disturbed).
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation
▪️Statement 2 is correct. Norman Myers developed this concept of biodiversity hotspot.
▪️To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers' 2000 edition of the hotspot map, a region must meet two strict criteria:
- it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (more than 0.5% of the world's total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation. Globally, 36 zones qualify under this definition.
▪️These sites support nearly 60% of the world's plant, bird, mammal, reptile, and amphibian species, with a high share of those species as endemics.
▪️Some of these hotspots support up to 15,000 endemic plant species, and some have lost up to 95% of their natural habitat
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▪️Statement 1 is incorrect. A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from the humans (disturbed).
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation
▪️Statement 2 is correct. Norman Myers developed this concept of biodiversity hotspot.
▪️To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers' 2000 edition of the hotspot map, a region must meet two strict criteria:
- it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (more than 0.5% of the world's total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation. Globally, 36 zones qualify under this definition.
▪️These sites support nearly 60% of the world's plant, bird, mammal, reptile, and amphibian species, with a high share of those species as endemics.
▪️Some of these hotspots support up to 15,000 endemic plant species, and some have lost up to 95% of their natural habitat
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Q. With reference to the Red List Index (RLI), consider the following statements:
1. The RLI is developed to show trends in overall extinction risks for species.
2. An RLI value of 1 equates to all species qualifying as Least Concerns.
3. An RLI value of 0 equates to all species having gone Extinct.
1. The RLI is developed to show trends in overall extinction risks for species.
2. An RLI value of 1 equates to all species qualifying as Least Concerns.
3. An RLI value of 0 equates to all species having gone Extinct.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
1 and 2 only
12%
1 and 3 only
9%
2 and 3 only
67%
1, 2 and 3
❤5🏆2
#Solution #Samajho #SPR+
IUCN Red List Index (RLI)
▪️Statement 1 is correct. The Red List Index (RLI) shows trends in overall extinction risk for species, and is used by governments to track their progress towards targets for reducing biodiversity loss.
▪️Statement 2 is correct. An RLI value of 1.0 equates to all species qualifying as Least Concern (i.e., not expected to become Extinct in the near future).
▪️Statement 3 is correct. An RLI value of 0 equates to all species having gone Extinct.
▪️A constant RLI value over time indicates that the overall extinction risk for the group is unchanged. If the rate of biodiversity loss were reducing, the RLI would show an upward trend. Confidence intervals (shown in grey) are calculated to take into account the number of Data Deficient species in each group and the uncertainty over exactly when changes in status occurred, given that assessments are repeated only at multi-year intervals, and therefore the precise value for any particular year is uncertain.
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IUCN Red List Index (RLI)
▪️Statement 1 is correct. The Red List Index (RLI) shows trends in overall extinction risk for species, and is used by governments to track their progress towards targets for reducing biodiversity loss.
▪️Statement 2 is correct. An RLI value of 1.0 equates to all species qualifying as Least Concern (i.e., not expected to become Extinct in the near future).
▪️Statement 3 is correct. An RLI value of 0 equates to all species having gone Extinct.
▪️A constant RLI value over time indicates that the overall extinction risk for the group is unchanged. If the rate of biodiversity loss were reducing, the RLI would show an upward trend. Confidence intervals (shown in grey) are calculated to take into account the number of Data Deficient species in each group and the uncertainty over exactly when changes in status occurred, given that assessments are repeated only at multi-year intervals, and therefore the precise value for any particular year is uncertain.
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Q. With reference to Paleolithic Period in India, Consider the following statements:
1. The early man in India used tools of stone roughly dressed by crude chipping, which have been found throughout the country except in the alluvial plains of the Indus, Ganga, and Yamuna rivers.
2. The early man had knowledge of cultivation and house building.
3. Paleolithic tools have been found in the Chhotanagpur plateau in India.
4. Paleolithic period in India developed in the Holocene period of the Ice Age.
1. The early man in India used tools of stone roughly dressed by crude chipping, which have been found throughout the country except in the alluvial plains of the Indus, Ganga, and Yamuna rivers.
2. The early man had knowledge of cultivation and house building.
3. Paleolithic tools have been found in the Chhotanagpur plateau in India.
4. Paleolithic period in India developed in the Holocene period of the Ice Age.
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