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Answer: (A)
INS Mangrol is an indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) of the Indian Navy. Such vessels are designed to strengthen India's capability to detect and counter submarine threats in shallow coastal waters. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
INS Mangrol is intended to strengthen coastal defence and improve the Navy's ability to detect underwater threats in littoral waters, which include coastal areas and maritime zones close to shore. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
ASW-SWCs are designed primarily for anti-submarine warfare in shallow waters, not for deep-ocean strategic deterrence or ballistic missile deployment. Strategic nuclear deterrence patrols are associated with ballistic missile submarines, which serve a different operational purpose. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
INS Mangrol is an indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) of the Indian Navy. Such vessels are designed to strengthen India's capability to detect and counter submarine threats in shallow coastal waters. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
INS Mangrol is intended to strengthen coastal defence and improve the Navy's ability to detect underwater threats in littoral waters, which include coastal areas and maritime zones close to shore. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
ASW-SWCs are designed primarily for anti-submarine warfare in shallow waters, not for deep-ocean strategic deterrence or ballistic missile deployment. Strategic nuclear deterrence patrols are associated with ballistic missile submarines, which serve a different operational purpose. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations for information and communication technologies.
2. India has been a member of the ITU since 1869.
3. It coordinates global radio-frequency spectrum and satellite orbits.
1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations for information and communication technologies.
2. India has been a member of the ITU since 1869.
3. It coordinates global radio-frequency spectrum and satellite orbits.
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Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is correct: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is indeed the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for information and communication technologies (ICTs). It coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world, and establishes worldwide standards.
Statement 2 is correct: India has had a long-standing association with the organization, becoming a member of the ITU as early as 1869 (back when it was established as the International Telegraph Union). Furthermore, India has been a regular member of the ITU Council since 1952 and actively contributes to global digital governance and standardization policies.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the core regulatory functions of the ITU is to manage the international radio frequency spectrum and satellite orbit resources. By doing so, it prevents harmful radio frequency interference between different countries' communications systems and satellite networks.
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is indeed the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for information and communication technologies (ICTs). It coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world, and establishes worldwide standards.
Statement 2 is correct: India has had a long-standing association with the organization, becoming a member of the ITU as early as 1869 (back when it was established as the International Telegraph Union). Furthermore, India has been a regular member of the ITU Council since 1952 and actively contributes to global digital governance and standardization policies.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the core regulatory functions of the ITU is to manage the international radio frequency spectrum and satellite orbit resources. By doing so, it prevents harmful radio frequency interference between different countries' communications systems and satellite networks.
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
Consider the following situations with reference to the Anti-Defection Law in India:
1. A nominated member of Parliament joins a political party six months after taking their seat in the House.
2. An elected member of a political party votes against the party's direction without obtaining prior permission, and the party does not condone the action within 15 days.
3. An elected independent member of Parliament joins a political party after being elected to the House.
1. A nominated member of Parliament joins a political party six months after taking their seat in the House.
2. An elected member of a political party votes against the party's direction without obtaining prior permission, and the party does not condone the action within 15 days.
3. An elected independent member of Parliament joins a political party after being elected to the House.
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Answer: (C)
Situation 1 is Correct: Under the Tenth Schedule, a nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking their seat without attracting disqualification on this ground. If the member joins a political party after this period, they are liable to be disqualified.
Situation 2 is Correct: A member belonging to a political party may be disqualified for voting or abstaining contrary to a direction issued by their political party without prior permission, unless the party condones the action within 15 days.
Situation 3 is Correct: An independent member of Parliament or a State Legislature is disqualified if they join any political party after their election. Unlike nominated members, independent members do not have a six-month period to join a political party.
Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Situation 1 is Correct: Under the Tenth Schedule, a nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking their seat without attracting disqualification on this ground. If the member joins a political party after this period, they are liable to be disqualified.
Situation 2 is Correct: A member belonging to a political party may be disqualified for voting or abstaining contrary to a direction issued by their political party without prior permission, unless the party condones the action within 15 days.
Situation 3 is Correct: An independent member of Parliament or a State Legislature is disqualified if they join any political party after their election. Unlike nominated members, independent members do not have a six-month period to join a political party.
Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Indian Navy ship INS Trishul arrived at Plymouth, United Kingdom, to participate in Exercise KONKAN-26 with the Royal Navy. The harbour phase involves professional interactions and cross-deck visits, while the sea phase focuses on operational naval drills.
Important for UPSC: International Relations → India–UK Relations → Bilateral Naval Exercises → Indian Navy → Maritime Security → India–UK Vision 2035.
Important for UPSC: International Relations → India–UK Relations → Bilateral Naval Exercises → Indian Navy → Maritime Security → India–UK Vision 2035.
Magnetorheological (MR) fluid is a smart material whose thickness and resistance to flow change when exposed to a magnetic field.
Important for UPSC: Science & Technology → Smart Materials → Magnetism → Rheology → Nanotechnology → Automotive Technology → Defence Applications.
Important for UPSC: Science & Technology → Smart Materials → Magnetism → Rheology → Nanotechnology → Automotive Technology → Defence Applications.
Consider the following statements about Economic Prize
1. It has been awarded jointly to American economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
2. It has been awarded for microeconomic foundations of macroeconomic stabilisation.
3. It was one of the five original prizes specified in Alfred Nobel's will.
1. It has been awarded jointly to American economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
2. It has been awarded for microeconomic foundations of macroeconomic stabilisation.
3. It was one of the five original prizes specified in Alfred Nobel's will.
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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel has been awarded jointly to American economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
Statement 2 is correct: They reconstructed macroeconomic models by building them on microeconomic foundations—focusing on how individual households and forward-looking businesses make decisions regarding savings and pricing.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Economics Prize was established later, in connection with the Swedish central bank's 300th anniversary, and is not one of the five original prizes.
Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel has been awarded jointly to American economists Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
Statement 2 is correct: They reconstructed macroeconomic models by building them on microeconomic foundations—focusing on how individual households and forward-looking businesses make decisions regarding savings and pricing.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Economics Prize was established later, in connection with the Swedish central bank's 300th anniversary, and is not one of the five original prizes.
Consider the following statements regarding coffee cultivation and administration in India:
1. Coffee is a tropical crop that requires a warm and humid climate with temperatures ranging between 15C and 28C, along with well-drained, humus-rich loamy soil.
2. Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India, accounting for more than 70% of the country's total coffee production.
3. The Coffee Board of India is a statutory organization functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
1. Coffee is a tropical crop that requires a warm and humid climate with temperatures ranging between 15C and 28C, along with well-drained, humus-rich loamy soil.
2. Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India, accounting for more than 70% of the country's total coffee production.
3. The Coffee Board of India is a statutory organization functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: Coffee requires a tropical, warm, and humid climate 15c to 28c and moderate to heavy rainfall (150𝑐𝑚 to 250𝑐𝑚). Deep, fertile, well-drained loamy soils rich in organic humus (often found on hill slopes) are ideal. Direct strong sunlight can harm the plants, so shade trees are usually planted alongside them.
Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka dominates Indian coffee production, contributing around 70% to 75% of the total output (mainly Arabica and Robusta), followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Coffee Board of India (established under the Coffee Act, 1942) functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (Department of Commerce), not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Coffee requires a tropical, warm, and humid climate 15c to 28c and moderate to heavy rainfall (150𝑐𝑚 to 250𝑐𝑚). Deep, fertile, well-drained loamy soils rich in organic humus (often found on hill slopes) are ideal. Direct strong sunlight can harm the plants, so shade trees are usually planted alongside them.
Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka dominates Indian coffee production, contributing around 70% to 75% of the total output (mainly Arabica and Robusta), followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Coffee Board of India (established under the Coffee Act, 1942) functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (Department of Commerce), not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
With reference to the 'Silver Economy' in India, consider the following statements:
1. The silver economy includes all economic activities related to meeting the needs of the elderly population.
2. Under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme, health coverage is provided to all senior citizens aged 70 years and above irrespective of income.
3. The Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) portal aims to encourage private sector startups to provide elderly care products and services..
1. The silver economy includes all economic activities related to meeting the needs of the elderly population.
2. Under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme, health coverage is provided to all senior citizens aged 70 years and above irrespective of income.
3. The Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) portal aims to encourage private sector startups to provide elderly care products and services..
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Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is correct: The Silver Economy refers to economic activities related to the needs and demands of the elderly population, including healthcare, elderly care, assistive technologies, housing and financial services.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the expanded Ayushman Bharat–Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), all senior citizens aged 70 years and above are eligible for health coverage irrespective of their income or socio-economic status. Eligible beneficiaries receive health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per year, subject to the scheme's applicable provisions.
Statement 3 is correct: The Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) initiative encourages start-ups to develop innovative products and services for senior citizens. It promotes private-sector participation in areas such as elderly care, assistive devices and age-related technology.
Hence, all three statements are correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: The Silver Economy refers to economic activities related to the needs and demands of the elderly population, including healthcare, elderly care, assistive technologies, housing and financial services.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the expanded Ayushman Bharat–Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), all senior citizens aged 70 years and above are eligible for health coverage irrespective of their income or socio-economic status. Eligible beneficiaries receive health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per year, subject to the scheme's applicable provisions.
Statement 3 is correct: The Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) initiative encourages start-ups to develop innovative products and services for senior citizens. It promotes private-sector participation in areas such as elderly care, assistive devices and age-related technology.
Hence, all three statements are correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's Rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's Rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.