Consider the following statements regarding 6G technology:
1. 6G is associated with the IMT-2030 framework of ITU.
2. Uses the Terahertz (THz) band (ranging from 100 GHz to 10 THz), sitting between microwaves and radio waves. .
3. It is projected to deliver speeds up to 1 Terabit per second (1 Tbps).
1. 6G is associated with the IMT-2030 framework of ITU.
2. Uses the Terahertz (THz) band (ranging from 100 GHz to 10 THz), sitting between microwaves and radio waves. .
3. It is projected to deliver speeds up to 1 Terabit per second (1 Tbps).
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Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is correct: 6G (Sixth-Generation) technology is the upcoming wireless communication standard—designated as IMT-2030 by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Uses the Terahertz (THz) band (ranging from 100 GHz to 10 THz), sitting between microwaves and infrared waves.
Statement 3 is correct: It is projected to deliver speeds up to 1 Terabit per second (1 Tbps) up to 100× to 1,000× faster than 5G; targets sub-millisecond or microsecond-level latency(near zero).
Therefore, Option C is the right answer
Statement 1 is correct: 6G (Sixth-Generation) technology is the upcoming wireless communication standard—designated as IMT-2030 by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Uses the Terahertz (THz) band (ranging from 100 GHz to 10 THz), sitting between microwaves and infrared waves.
Statement 3 is correct: It is projected to deliver speeds up to 1 Terabit per second (1 Tbps) up to 100× to 1,000× faster than 5G; targets sub-millisecond or microsecond-level latency(near zero).
Therefore, Option C is the right answer
Consider the following statements with regard to tuberculosis (TB):
1. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and affects only the lungs.
2. Pulmonary tuberculosis can spread through the air when an infectious person releases bacteria by coughing or speaking.
3. The Ni-kshay portal is associated with the digital monitoring of TB patients and programme-related information.
1. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and affects only the lungs.
2. Pulmonary tuberculosis can spread through the air when an infectious person releases bacteria by coughing or speaking.
3. The Ni-kshay portal is associated with the digital monitoring of TB patients and programme-related information.
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Answer: (A)
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Although it most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), it can also affect other organs, including the brain, kidneys, bones and lymph nodes (extrapulmonary TB). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Pulmonary TB spreads through the air when a person with infectious TB releases bacteria-containing particles by coughing, speaking or singing. Transmission is more likely in enclosed or poorly ventilated spaces. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The Ni-kshay portal is a digital platform associated with India's National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP). It supports the registration and monitoring of TB patients and helps manage programme-related information, including treatment and follow-up. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Although it most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), it can also affect other organs, including the brain, kidneys, bones and lymph nodes (extrapulmonary TB). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Pulmonary TB spreads through the air when a person with infectious TB releases bacteria-containing particles by coughing, speaking or singing. Transmission is more likely in enclosed or poorly ventilated spaces. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The Ni-kshay portal is a digital platform associated with India's National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP). It supports the registration and monitoring of TB patients and helps manage programme-related information, including treatment and follow-up. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. It regulates foreign access to Indian biological resources and promotes fair benefit-sharing.
3. It prepares People’s Biodiversity Registers at the local level.
4. It advises State Governments on notifying Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
1. It is a statutory body established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. It regulates foreign access to Indian biological resources and promotes fair benefit-sharing.
3. It prepares People’s Biodiversity Registers at the local level.
4. It advises State Governments on notifying Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
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Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is Correct. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory, autonomous body established in 2003 by the Central Government under Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to implement its provisions.
Statement 2 is Correct. The NBA regulates foreign access to Indian biological resources (under Section 3 of the Act) and ensures equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of these resources.
Statement 3 is Incorrect. People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) are not prepared directly by the National Biodiversity Authority. Instead, they are prepared by local-level Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) constituted by local bodies (panchayats, municipalities) in consultation with local communities.
Statement 4 is Correct. Under Section 18 of the Act, one of the primary statutory functions of the NBA is to advise State Governments in selecting and notifying areas of ecological and biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
Therefore ,option B is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is Correct. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory, autonomous body established in 2003 by the Central Government under Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to implement its provisions.
Statement 2 is Correct. The NBA regulates foreign access to Indian biological resources (under Section 3 of the Act) and ensures equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of these resources.
Statement 3 is Incorrect. People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) are not prepared directly by the National Biodiversity Authority. Instead, they are prepared by local-level Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) constituted by local bodies (panchayats, municipalities) in consultation with local communities.
Statement 4 is Correct. Under Section 18 of the Act, one of the primary statutory functions of the NBA is to advise State Governments in selecting and notifying areas of ecological and biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
Therefore ,option B is the correct answer.
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Course Highlights:
- Entire Course Personally Handled by R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS
- CCA study material and class notes personally prepared by R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS
- Coverage from the right and most credible sources
- Exam-Oriented approach for UPSC CSE Prelims 2027
- Practice Questions after every class
- Full-Length Tests
Know more: https://youtu.be/FEXCiTfxmx8
Integrated learning with conceptual clarity and subject interlinkages
Course Fee: ₹24,750
Download Brochure: https://drive.google.com/file/d/19Tcpkd2BcT0YRAB5fGyyR4kEayNVdfFl/view?usp=sharing
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With reference to the Selection Committee for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs), consider the following statements:
1. The Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha is a statutory member.
3. The Chief Justice of India serves as a member of the Selection Committee.
4. The vacancy of any member in the Selection Committee invalidates the appointment of the CEC or ECs.
1. The Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha is a statutory member.
3. The Chief Justice of India serves as a member of the Selection Committee.
4. The vacancy of any member in the Selection Committee invalidates the appointment of the CEC or ECs.
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Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha) is a statutory member of the Selection Committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Act excluded the Chief Justice of India from the Selection Committee and replaced the position with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Section 7(2) of the 2023 Act explicitly provides that no appointment of the CEC or ECs shall be invalid merely by reason of any vacancy in, or defect in the constitution of, the Selection Committee.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha) is a statutory member of the Selection Committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Act excluded the Chief Justice of India from the Selection Committee and replaced the position with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Section 7(2) of the 2023 Act explicitly provides that no appointment of the CEC or ECs shall be invalid merely by reason of any vacancy in, or defect in the constitution of, the Selection Committee.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
With reference to the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Henri B. Kagan and Kenso Soai were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their work on asymmetric organic synthesis.
2. Their work showed that small molecular imbalances can be amplified through autocatalysis.
3. The work provided insights into homochirality, where one molecular form predominates over its mirror image.
1. Henri B. Kagan and Kenso Soai were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their work on asymmetric organic synthesis.
2. Their work showed that small molecular imbalances can be amplified through autocatalysis.
3. The work provided insights into homochirality, where one molecular form predominates over its mirror image.
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Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is correct: French chemist Henri B. Kagan and Japanese chemist Kenso Soai were awarded the 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry “for the discovery of non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis.”
Statement 2 is correct: Their discoveries showed how chemical reactions can amplify tiny initial molecular imbalances through autocatalysis, where a chiral product promotes the formation of more of the same molecular form.
Statement 3 is correct: Their research provided a solution to a century-old mystery of homochirality, showing how one mirror-image form can become overwhelmingly predominant over the other. This helps explain the “one-handedness” observed in biological molecules, such as L-amino acids and D-sugars.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: French chemist Henri B. Kagan and Japanese chemist Kenso Soai were awarded the 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry “for the discovery of non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis.”
Statement 2 is correct: Their discoveries showed how chemical reactions can amplify tiny initial molecular imbalances through autocatalysis, where a chiral product promotes the formation of more of the same molecular form.
Statement 3 is correct: Their research provided a solution to a century-old mystery of homochirality, showing how one mirror-image form can become overwhelmingly predominant over the other. This helps explain the “one-handedness” observed in biological molecules, such as L-amino acids and D-sugars.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends long term funds to commercial banks against eligible securities.
2. An increase in the Repo Rate generally helps moderate inflationary pressures.
3. A reduction in the Repo Rate generally encourages credit expansion.
1. The Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends long term funds to commercial banks against eligible securities.
2. An increase in the Repo Rate generally helps moderate inflationary pressures.
3. A reduction in the Repo Rate generally encourages credit expansion.
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Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against eligible securities (such as government securities). The rate associated with lending long-term funds is the Bank Rate.
Statement 2 is correct: An increase in the repo rate makes borrowing costlier for commercial banks. In turn, banks raise their lending rates for consumers and businesses. This curbs excess liquidity in the economy, increases the cost of credit, slows down aggregate demand, and helps moderate inflationary pressures.
Statement 3 is correct: A reduction in the repo rate lowers the cost of borrowing for banks. This encourages them to expand credit by offering cheaper loans to businesses and retail customers, thereby boosting investment, consumption, and overall credit expansion in the economy.
Therefore option B is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against eligible securities (such as government securities). The rate associated with lending long-term funds is the Bank Rate.
Statement 2 is correct: An increase in the repo rate makes borrowing costlier for commercial banks. In turn, banks raise their lending rates for consumers and businesses. This curbs excess liquidity in the economy, increases the cost of credit, slows down aggregate demand, and helps moderate inflationary pressures.
Statement 3 is correct: A reduction in the repo rate lowers the cost of borrowing for banks. This encourages them to expand credit by offering cheaper loans to businesses and retail customers, thereby boosting investment, consumption, and overall credit expansion in the economy.
Therefore option B is the correct answer.
Lake Erie is one of the five Great Lakes: Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie and Ontario. It borders Ontario in Canada and Michigan, Ohio, Pennsylvania and New York in the United States.
Important for UPSC: World Geography → North America → Great Lakes → US–Canada Border → Niagara River → Niagara Falls → Freshwater Ecosystems → Eutrophication.
Important for UPSC: World Geography → North America → Great Lakes → US–Canada Border → Niagara River → Niagara Falls → Freshwater Ecosystems → Eutrophication.