Glaw Lake has been designated as India's 101st Ramsar Site, becoming the first Ramsar Site in Arunachal Pradesh. The announcement was made by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Ramsar designation recognizes the lake as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, promoting its conservation and wise use.

Important for UPSC: Ramsar Convention, Wetland Conservation, Eastern Himalayas, Kamlang Tiger Reserve, Biodiversity, and Environmental Governance.

Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report, West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India.
2. The Indian elephant is accorded the highest level of legal protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides specific statutory recognition to elephant corridors as a distinct category of protected area.

Answer: (B)
● Statement 1 is correct: According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report published by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in the country, with 26 corridors accounting for nearly 17% of the national total.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, giving it the highest level of legal protection against hunting, poaching, and illegal trade.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 defines specific statutory categories for Protected Areas—namely National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. While corridors can sometimes be declared as Conservation or Community Reserves, the Act does not recognize "elephant corridors" as a distinct legal category of protected area.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 22(1) of the Constitution requires that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest.
2. Article 21 requires that any deprivation of personal liberty must follow a procedure that is fair, just and reasonable.
3. Article 22 also provides that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice.

Answer: (A)
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) specifically provides that a person who is arrested must be informed, as soon as possible, of the grounds of arrest. This is an important safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to mean that no person can be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law that is fair, just, and reasonable. This interpretation was firmly established in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).
● Statement 3 is correct: Article 22(1) also guarantees that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice, which is a fundamental procedural protection in criminal justice.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

With reference to Mission Mausam, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to improve weather and climate services through better observation, modelling and forecasting.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2024.

Answer: (C)
● Mission Mausam aims to improve weather and climate services through better observation, modelling and forecasting, helping provide more timely and accurate weather information for various sectors. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
● Mission Mausam was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2024. It is implemented by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), and Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM). Hence Statement 2 is Correct.

Therefore , option C is the correct answer.

Which of the following are included in India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves?
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Monetary Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights
4. Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF
5. Government securities issued by the Government of India

Answer: (B)
According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves officially consist of four major components:
1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): Denominated in major foreign currencies (USD, EUR, GBP, etc.) and held in foreign central banks, Treasury bills, and government securities of foreign nations.
2. Monetary Gold: Gold held by the RBI as part of its reserve assets.
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): International reserve assets allocated by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to member countries.
4. Reserve Tranche Position (RTP): A member country's quota-based reserve position with the IMF that can be drawn upon on demand.
Why Item 5 is incorrect:
● Government securities issued by the Government of India are domestic debt instruments denominated in Indian Rupees (INR) and are liabilities of the government, not external foreign exchange assets held by the central bank.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Chips to Start-up Programme:
1. It aims to develop industry-ready professionals in the semiconductor sector.
2. It provides access to chip-design tools, laboratories, mentorship and technical support.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).