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1) With reference to the independence of the judiciary in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The judiciary may intervene in public discourse to protect public confidence in the
justice system and prevent misinformation about the courts.
2. The office of the Chief Justice of India is exempt from the Right to Information Act,
2005.
3. Judges of the higher judiciary are not directly under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013 like other public servants.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
19%
1 only
18%
1 and 2 only
43%
1 and 3 only
20%
1,2 and 3
1) Answer: (C)
Courts sometimes justify interventions (for example through contempt powers or
observations in judgments) to maintain public confidence in the judiciary and prevent
misinformation about courts
.
This idea is connected to the courts’ authority as courts of record under Articles 129 and
215
and the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which protects the dignity and authority of the
judiciary. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The office of the CJI is not exempt from RTI. In the landmark judgment Central Public
Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019)
, the Supreme Court of India
held that the office of the Chief Justice of India comes under the RTI Act, though
disclosure must balance transparency, judicial independence, and privacy. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are not directly under the jurisdiction of
Lokpal like other public servants
.
Their accountability primarily occurs through:

Impeachment by Parliament (Articles 124 and 217)

In-house judicial mechanisms
This limited external oversight is intended to protect judicial independence. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore , option C is the correct answer.
2) With reference to Purified Terephthalic Acid (PTA) and Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG)
recently seen in the news, Which of the statements given below are correct?
(a) They are used in the production of Polyester Fiber and PET plastic bottles.
(b) They are used as industrial coatings to provide UV protection for architectural wood
structures.
(c) They are used in automotive radiators primarily as a thermal insulator to protect
engine parts from external heat.
(d) They are used as a de-icing agent to increase ice formation on aircraft wings and
runways.
2) Answer: (A)

Purified Terephthalic Acid (PTA) and Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG) are
chemically combined to produce Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET), which is then
processed into polyester fibers for the textile industry and PET resin for
manufacturing clear, durable plastic bottles and food containers. Hence, option A is
correct.
While some polyester resins are used in paints and coatings, PTA and MEG are
not primarily known or used as UV-protective industrial coatings for architectural
wood structures.Hence, option B is Incorrect.
While Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG) is widely used in automotive radiators, it
functions as an antifreeze and coolant to manage engine temperature, not as a
"thermal insulator"
to protect parts from external heat.Hence, option C is
Incorrect.
MEG is used as a de-icing agent to prevent or melt ice formation on aircraft and
runways by lowering the freezing point of water; it is not used to "increase" ice
formation.Hence, option D is Incorrect.
Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
3) Consider the following statements regarding demand for a good. Other things remaining
unchanged, the demand for the good will increase if:
1. The price of its substitute good increases.
2. The price of its substitute good decreases.
3. Consumers develop a stronger preference for the good over its substitutes.
4. The price of the good increases.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
39%
Only two
41%
Only there
16%
All of the four
3%
None of the above
3) Answer: (B)
The Law of Demand:
The Law of Demand states that, ceteris paribus (all other factors
remaining constant), there is an inverse relationship between the price of a good and its
quantity demanded.

When Price increases: Quantity Demanded decreases

When Price decreases: Quantity Demanded increases
This occurs because of the Substitution Effect (consumers switch to cheaper alternatives)
and the Income Effect (consumers feel "richer" when prices drop and can buy more).
The price of its substitute good increases: Substitutes are goods that can be used in place
of one another (e.g., Tea and Coffee). If the price of tea increases, people will switch to
coffee. Therefore, the demand for coffee increases. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The price of its substitute good decreases:
If the price of a substitute (Tea) falls,
consumers will leave the current good (Coffee) to buy the cheaper alternative. This leads to
a decrease in demand for the current good. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Consumers develop a stronger preference for the good:
Favorable changes in tastes and
preferences whether due to trends, advertising, or perceived quality always lead to an
increase in demand. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The price of the good increases:
According to the Law of Demand, if the price of a good
increases, the quantity demanded falls. This is a movement along the existing demand
curve, not an "increase in demand" (which implies a rightward shift of the curve). Hence,
statement 4 is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct answ
4) Consider the following statements regarding women’s political representation in India
1. In the 18th Lok Sabha, women Members of Parliament constitute around 14% of the
total strength.
2. Women constitute more than 45% of the elected representatives in Panchayati Raj
Institutions.
3. The share of women in State Legislative Assemblies in India remains low, averaging
about 40% of the total membership
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
15%
1 only
45%
1 and 2 only
19%
2 and 3 only
20%
1,2 and 3
4) Answer: (B)

In the 18th Lok Sabha (elected in 2024), 74 women were elected to the lower house of
Parliament. While this is a significant number in historical context, it represents
approximately 13.6% to 14% of the total 543 seats. This figure is slightly lower than
the 78 women (14.3%) elected in the 17th Lok Sabha, highlighting a plateau in
representation despite increased political discourse. Hence, Statement 1 is correct

The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts mandated a minimum of 33.3%
reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies.
However, over 20 states (such as Bihar, Uttarakhand, and Madhya Pradesh) have
increased this quota to 50%. Currently, the national average of women representatives
in PRIs stands at over 45%, demonstrating that local governance is the most
gender-diverse tier of Indian politics. Hence, Statement 2 is correct
The representation of women in State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas) is
disproportionately low compared to their population share. On average, women
comprise only about 9–10% of the total membership across all states. In many states,
this figure drops below 5%, illustrating a significant "glass ceiling" in state-level
politics. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore , option B is the correct answer.
5) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS)
reforms proposed for 2026:
1. The reform focuses on universalizing social security for all segments of the workforce.
2. This provision ensures that at least 50% of the employee’s total remuneration is
considered for pension contribution.
3. The reforms are primarily based on the provisions of the Code on Social Security,
2020.
Which of the above following is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 and 2 only
23%
2 and 3 only
53%
1,2 and 3
13%
None of the above
5) Answer: (C)

The Code on Social Security, 2020 aims to extend social security coverage to the
entire workforce of India, estimated at over 500 million workers. Unlike earlier
frameworks that mainly focused on the organized sector, the new framework expands
coverage to unorganized workers, gig workers (such as delivery partners), and
platform workers (such as app-based consultants). It also provides for the creation of a
Social Security Fund to support benefits like health insurance, disability support, and
old-age protection for these previously excluded groups. Hence Statement 1 is
correct.

The new wage definition introduces a structural reform to prevent “salary masking.”
Earlier, employers often kept basic pay low and allowances high to reduce
contributions to provident fund and pension schemes. Under the new rule, if
allowances exceed 50% of total remuneration, the excess portion is added back to
wages. This ensures that the wage base used for calculating pension and provident
fund contributions is at least 50% of the total salary, leading to more realistic social
security benefits. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The proposed EPS framework is an administrative implementation of the Code on
Social Security, 2020. The Code consolidated nine central labour laws, including the
Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the Maternity
Benefit Act, 1961, and the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972. Although the Code was
enacted in 2020, the operational rollout of the new framework is planned from April
2026 to allow industries and state governments sufficient time to align their
administrative systems.. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer
1) Daily MCQ: 10.03.2026
The Musi River is a tributary of which of the following river?
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Kaveri
(d) Gang
1) Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Musi River originates in the Ananthagiri Hills near Vikarabad in Telangana and flows through
the city of Hyderabad. It is a tributary of the Krishna River and eventually joins it in the Nalgonda
region. Hence, option (a) is correct.
The river has recently been in the news due to the Musi River Development Project, which aims to
rejuvenate the polluted river flowing through Hyderabad. The project focuses on riverfront
development, sewage treatment, flood management, and ecological restoration of the Musi.
Since the Musi ultimately drains into the Krishna basin, its restoration is also important for
improving water quality and environmental health in the larger Krishna river system. Therefore,
option (a) is the correct answer.
2) Consider the following pairs:
No Militant Organization Region of Operation
1 Boko Haram Nigeria
2 Al‑Shabaab Somalia / East Africa
3 Houthi Movement Yemen
4. Hezbollah Lebanon
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 and 2 only
13%
1,2 and 3 only
23%
2,3 and 4 only
53%
1,2, 3 and 4
option (a) is the correct answer.
2) Answer: (D)
Explanation:
1.
Boko Haram is an Islamist militant group primarily operating in Nigeria and the Lake Chad
region. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
2.
Al‑Shabaab is an extremist organization active mainly in Somalia and parts of East Africa.
Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
3.
The Houthi Movement is a Shia political and militant group operating in Yemen, involved in
the Yemeni civil war. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
4. Hezbollah is based in Lebanon and plays a major role in the country’s politics and regional
conflicts. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matched. Hence, option (D) is the correct answer
3) 4) Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Consider the following statements regarding Ethylene Glycol:
1. 2. It is widely used as an antifreeze in automobile cooling systems..
It is commonly used in the manufacture of polyester fibres and PET plastics.
3. It is a poisonous compound and ingestion can cause serious health effects such as
kidney failure.
Which of the statements given above are correct??
Anonymous Quiz
10%
1 and 2 only
14%
2 and 3 only
19%
1 and 3 only
57%
1,2 and 3