3) Answer: (B)
Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and shares land borders with several countries. From
the options given, Egypt (north), Chad (west), and Eritrea (east) all share land boundaries
with Sudan. However, Kenya does not border Sudan; it borders countries like Ethiopia,
South Sudan, Uganda, Tanzania, and Somalia. Hence, among the listed countries, only
Egypt, Chad, and Eritrea share a boundary with Sudan.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

4) With reference to the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following statements:
1. It functions as an armed force under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Defence.
2. It has jurisdiction only up to India’s territorial waters and does not operate in the
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
3. It acts as the coordinating authority for marine pollution response in Indian waters.

4) Answer: (B)
The ICG was formally established on August 18, 1978, under the Coast Guard Act, 1978,
though it began operations on February 1, 1977. It started with a small fleet transferred from
the Indian Navy (two frigates and five patrol boats) to address growing needs like curbing
sea-borne smuggling, protecting offshore assets, and handling search and rescue after
incidents like the 1971 Indo-Pak War highlighted gaps in maritime policing.
The Indian Coast Guard was established by the Coast Guard Act, 1978. It is an Armed
Force of the Union and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Defence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The ICG's jurisdiction is vast. It operates in the Territorial Waters (up to 12 nautical miles),
the Contiguous Zone, and the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) (up to 200 nautical miles). Its
primary duty is to protect artificial islands, offshore terminals, and provide protection to
fishermen and mariners within the entire EEZ. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The ICG is the Central Coordinating Authority for Marine Pollution Response in India. It
executes the National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP) to protect the
marine environment from oil spills and hazardous substances. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a
special majority of members in the House.
2. While a removal resolution is under consideration the Speaker may preside over the
House but cannot vote.
3. The Constitution does not specify the particular grounds on which the Speaker can be
rem

5) Answer: (A)
●
According to Article 94(c) of the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be
removed by a resolution passed by a majority of “all the then members” of the
House. In parliamentary terminology, this phrase refers to the effective strength of
the House, which means the total sanctioned strength minus any existing
vacancies. Therefore, the removal of the Speaker requires an Effective Majority, i.e.,
more than 50% of the effective strength of the House. This is different from a
Special Majority, which requires two-thirds of the members present and voting along
with a majority of the total strength, and is used in cases such as constitutional
amendments or removal of Supreme Court judges. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect
●
Under Article 96 of the Constitution, when a resolution for the removal of the
Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting of the
House. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the
proceedings and can vote in the first instance, but cannot exercise a casting vote
in case of a tie. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.●

The Constitution does not specify any explicit grounds for the removal of the
Speaker. This deliberate omission allows the House to exercise its discretion and
collective judgment. However, in practice, a removal motion is generally initiated if
the Speaker loses the confidence of the majority, is perceived to be biased or fails to
maintain political neutrality, or is accused of violating the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business of the House. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is correct answer

1) With reference to the independence of the judiciary in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The judiciary may intervene in public discourse to protect public confidence in the
justice system and prevent misinformation about the courts.
2. The office of the Chief Justice of India is exempt from the Right to Information Act,
2005.
3. Judges of the higher judiciary are not directly under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013 like other public servants.

1) Answer: (C)
Courts sometimes justify interventions (for example through contempt powers or
observations in judgments) to maintain public confidence in the judiciary and prevent
misinformation about courts.
This idea is connected to the courts’ authority as courts of record under Articles 129 and
215 and the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which protects the dignity and authority of the
judiciary. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The office of the CJI is not exempt from RTI. In the landmark judgment Central Public
Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019), the Supreme Court of India
held that the office of the Chief Justice of India comes under the RTI Act, though
disclosure must balance transparency, judicial independence, and privacy. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are not directly under the jurisdiction of
Lokpal like other public servants.
Their accountability primarily occurs through:
●
Impeachment by Parliament (Articles 124 and 217)
●
In-house judicial mechanisms
This limited external oversight is intended to protect judicial independence. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore , option C is the correct answer.

2) With reference to Purified Terephthalic Acid (PTA) and Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG)
recently seen in the news, Which of the statements given below are correct?
(a) They are used in the production of Polyester Fiber and PET plastic bottles.
(b) They are used as industrial coatings to provide UV protection for architectural wood
structures.
(c) They are used in automotive radiators primarily as a thermal insulator to protect
engine parts from external heat.
(d) They are used as a de-icing agent to increase ice formation on aircraft wings and
runways.

2) Answer: (A)
●
Purified Terephthalic Acid (PTA) and Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG) are
chemically combined to produce Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET), which is then
processed into polyester fibers for the textile industry and PET resin for
manufacturing clear, durable plastic bottles and food containers. Hence, option A is
correct.
While some polyester resins are used in paints and coatings, PTA and MEG are
not primarily known or used as UV-protective industrial coatings for architectural
wood structures.Hence, option B is Incorrect.
While Mono Ethylene Glycol (MEG) is widely used in automotive radiators, it
functions as an antifreeze and coolant to manage engine temperature, not as a
"thermal insulator" to protect parts from external heat.Hence, option C is
Incorrect.
MEG is used as a de-icing agent to prevent or melt ice formation on aircraft and
runways by lowering the freezing point of water; it is not used to "increase" ice
formation.Hence, option D is Incorrect.
Therefore , option A is the correct answer.

3) Consider the following statements regarding demand for a good. Other things remaining
unchanged, the demand for the good will increase if:
1. The price of its substitute good increases.
2. The price of its substitute good decreases.
3. Consumers develop a stronger preference for the good over its substitutes.
4. The price of the good increases.

3) Answer: (B)
The Law of Demand: The Law of Demand states that, ceteris paribus (all other factors
remaining constant), there is an inverse relationship between the price of a good and its
quantity demanded.
●
When Price increases: Quantity Demanded decreases
●
When Price decreases: Quantity Demanded increases
This occurs because of the Substitution Effect (consumers switch to cheaper alternatives)
and the Income Effect (consumers feel "richer" when prices drop and can buy more).
The price of its substitute good increases: Substitutes are goods that can be used in place
of one another (e.g., Tea and Coffee). If the price of tea increases, people will switch to
coffee. Therefore, the demand for coffee increases. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The price of its substitute good decreases: If the price of a substitute (Tea) falls,
consumers will leave the current good (Coffee) to buy the cheaper alternative. This leads to
a decrease in demand for the current good. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Consumers develop a stronger preference for the good: Favorable changes in tastes and
preferences whether due to trends, advertising, or perceived quality always lead to an
increase in demand. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The price of the good increases: According to the Law of Demand, if the price of a good
increases, the quantity demanded falls. This is a movement along the existing demand
curve, not an "increase in demand" (which implies a rightward shift of the curve). Hence,
statement 4 is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct answ

4) Consider the following statements regarding women’s political representation in India
1. In the 18th Lok Sabha, women Members of Parliament constitute around 14% of the
total strength.
2. Women constitute more than 45% of the elected representatives in Panchayati Raj
Institutions.
3. The share of women in State Legislative Assemblies in India remains low, averaging
about 40% of the total membership

4) Answer: (B)
●
In the 18th Lok Sabha (elected in 2024), 74 women were elected to the lower house of
Parliament. While this is a significant number in historical context, it represents
approximately 13.6% to 14% of the total 543 seats. This figure is slightly lower than
the 78 women (14.3%) elected in the 17th Lok Sabha, highlighting a plateau in
representation despite increased political discourse. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
●
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts mandated a minimum of 33.3%
reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies.
However, over 20 states (such as Bihar, Uttarakhand, and Madhya Pradesh) have
increased this quota to 50%. Currently, the national average of women representatives
in PRIs stands at over 45%, demonstrating that local governance is the most
gender-diverse tier of Indian politics. Hence, Statement 2 is correct
The representation of women in State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas) is
disproportionately low compared to their population share. On average, women
comprise only about 9–10% of the total membership across all states. In many states,
this figure drops below 5%, illustrating a significant "glass ceiling" in state-level
politics. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore , option B is the correct answer.

5) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS)
reforms proposed for 2026:
1. The reform focuses on universalizing social security for all segments of the workforce.
2. This provision ensures that at least 50% of the employee’s total remuneration is
considered for pension contribution.
3. The reforms are primarily based on the provisions of the Code on Social Security,
2020.