1) Answer: (C)
The term “Brent” refers to the Brent oil field, which was discovered in the 1970s and
became a significant source of oil production. It is a light, sweet crude oil extracted from
different oil fields in the North Sea. Its unique properties, low density and low sulphur
content, make Brent crude oil simpler to process into products such as gasoline. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
As its supply is water-borne, Brent crude oil is easy to transport to distant locations. About
two-thirds of all internationally traded crude oil supplies are priced relative to Brent, making
it the most widely used marker of all. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

2) Consider the following statements regarding Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) in India:
1. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose
Vehicle under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
2. All existing operational SPR facilities in India are located on the Western Coast of the
country.

2) Answer: (A)
Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) are government-controlled emergency stockpiles of
crude oil (and sometimes refined products) designed to protect against major supply
disruptions, such as wars, embargoes, natural disasters, or geopolitical crises. They help
stabilize energy markets, ensure national security, and mitigate economic shocks from sudden
oil shortages or price spikes. These reserves are typically stored in secure underground
facilities (like salt caverns) and are part of international commitments, especially among
International Energy Agency (IEA) members, which require holding the equivalent of at
least 90 days of net oil imports.
The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is indeed a Special Purpose
Vehicle (SPV) created specifically to manage the country's oil reserves. It functions as a
wholly-owned subsidiary of the Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB) under the
administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
India’s Phase I SPR facilities are located on both coasts, not just the western coast. While
Mangaluru and Padur are in Karnataka (Western Coast), the Visakhapatnam facility is
located in Andhra Pradesh on the Eastern Coast. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer

3) Consider the following statements:
1. Petrol and Diesel are exempted from the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
2. Input Tax Credit (ITC) can be claimed by businesses on the V AT paid for natural gas
used as an industrial input.
3. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is responsible for fixing
the daily retail selling price of petrol and diesel based on international benchmar

3) Answer: (A)
Not all petroleum products are outside GST.
Currently, five major petroleum products are kept outside GST:
●
Crude oil
●
Petrol (Motor Spirit)
●
Diesel (High Speed Diesel)
●
Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)
●
Natural Gas
These continue to be taxed by Central Excise + State V AT.
However, other petroleum products like LPG (domestic), kerosene (PDS), lubricants,
naphtha, etc. fall under GST. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Input Tax Credit (ITC) can be claimed only for taxes paid within the GST system.
Since natural gas is outside GST and taxed under V AT, the V AT paid cannot be claimed
as ITC under GST.
This leads to a tax cascading effect for industries using natural gas. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) does not fix petrol or diesel
prices.
Its main functions include:
●
Regulating downstream petroleum and natural gas infrastructure
●
Authorising city gas distribution networks
●
Ensuring fair competition in pipelines and gas markets
Since 2010, petrol and diesel prices in India are market-linked, and Oil Marketing
Companies (OMCs) like IOCL, BPCL, and HPCL revise prices based on international
crude prices and exchange rates. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, option A is
the correct answer.

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Research and Development (R&D) sector
in India:
1. India’s expenditure on Research and Development is less than 1% of its GDP.
2. More than half of R&D expenditure in India is funded by the government sector.
3. Women make up less than 5% of the total R&D workforce in STEM.

2) Answer: (A)
India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) as a percentage of GDP
has consistently hovered between 0.6% and 0.7% over the last decade. This is significantly
lower than the global average of approximately 1.8%. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Unlike many developed nations where the private sector leads R&D investment, the Indian
R&D landscape is dominated by the government sector. Public funding (including Central
and State governments and Public Sector Enterprises) accounts for roughly 60% to 64% of
total R&D expenditure. Hence statement 2 is correct.
While women’s representation in the R&D workforce remains a challenge, it is significantly
higher than 5%. As per recent statistics, women’s participation in extramural R&D projects
has increased to approximately 25% as of 2019–20. Other data indicators place female
researchers in India's total R&D workforce at roughly 16% to 18%, which is well above the
"less than 5%" figure, Although India has a high percentage of female STEM graduates
(~43%), their representation in research is lower, but steadily increasing due to government

3) Consider the following countries
1. Egypt
2. Chad
3. Eritrea
4. Kenya

3) Answer: (B)
Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and shares land borders with several countries. From
the options given, Egypt (north), Chad (west), and Eritrea (east) all share land boundaries
with Sudan. However, Kenya does not border Sudan; it borders countries like Ethiopia,
South Sudan, Uganda, Tanzania, and Somalia. Hence, among the listed countries, only
Egypt, Chad, and Eritrea share a boundary with Sudan.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

4) With reference to the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following statements:
1. It functions as an armed force under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Defence.
2. It has jurisdiction only up to India’s territorial waters and does not operate in the
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
3. It acts as the coordinating authority for marine pollution response in Indian waters.

4) Answer: (B)
The ICG was formally established on August 18, 1978, under the Coast Guard Act, 1978,
though it began operations on February 1, 1977. It started with a small fleet transferred from
the Indian Navy (two frigates and five patrol boats) to address growing needs like curbing
sea-borne smuggling, protecting offshore assets, and handling search and rescue after
incidents like the 1971 Indo-Pak War highlighted gaps in maritime policing.
The Indian Coast Guard was established by the Coast Guard Act, 1978. It is an Armed
Force of the Union and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Defence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The ICG's jurisdiction is vast. It operates in the Territorial Waters (up to 12 nautical miles),
the Contiguous Zone, and the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) (up to 200 nautical miles). Its
primary duty is to protect artificial islands, offshore terminals, and provide protection to
fishermen and mariners within the entire EEZ. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The ICG is the Central Coordinating Authority for Marine Pollution Response in India. It
executes the National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP) to protect the
marine environment from oil spills and hazardous substances. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a
special majority of members in the House.
2. While a removal resolution is under consideration the Speaker may preside over the
House but cannot vote.
3. The Constitution does not specify the particular grounds on which the Speaker can be
rem

5) Answer: (A)
●
According to Article 94(c) of the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be
removed by a resolution passed by a majority of “all the then members” of the
House. In parliamentary terminology, this phrase refers to the effective strength of
the House, which means the total sanctioned strength minus any existing
vacancies. Therefore, the removal of the Speaker requires an Effective Majority, i.e.,
more than 50% of the effective strength of the House. This is different from a
Special Majority, which requires two-thirds of the members present and voting along
with a majority of the total strength, and is used in cases such as constitutional
amendments or removal of Supreme Court judges. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect
●
Under Article 96 of the Constitution, when a resolution for the removal of the
Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting of the
House. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the
proceedings and can vote in the first instance, but cannot exercise a casting vote
in case of a tie. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.●

The Constitution does not specify any explicit grounds for the removal of the
Speaker. This deliberate omission allows the House to exercise its discretion and
collective judgment. However, in practice, a removal motion is generally initiated if
the Speaker loses the confidence of the majority, is perceived to be biased or fails to
maintain political neutrality, or is accused of violating the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business of the House. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is correct answer

1) With reference to the independence of the judiciary in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The judiciary may intervene in public discourse to protect public confidence in the
justice system and prevent misinformation about the courts.
2. The office of the Chief Justice of India is exempt from the Right to Information Act,
2005.
3. Judges of the higher judiciary are not directly under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013 like other public servants.