1) 2) 3) Daily MCQ: 06.02.2026
With reference to the UN Charter, consider the following statements:
1. UNSC can authorize the use of force against a country in cases of a breach of
international peace or an act of aggression.
2. The inherent right of self-defence of a state under the UN Charter arises only when
an actual armed attack occurs.
3. The UNSC may authorize the use of military force to restore international peace if
non-military measures prove insufficient
With reference to the UN Charter, consider the following statements:
1. UNSC can authorize the use of force against a country in cases of a breach of
international peace or an act of aggression.
2. The inherent right of self-defence of a state under the UN Charter arises only when
an actual armed attack occurs.
3. The UNSC may authorize the use of military force to restore international peace if
non-military measures prove insufficient
Which of the above statements are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
1 and 2 only
23%
1 and 3 only
25%
2 and 3 only
49%
1,2 and 3
1) Answer: (D)
The Security Council can authorize the use of force against a country when there is a
breach of international peace or an act of aggression. This power allows the Council to
take measures, including economic sanctions or military action, to restore peace and
security. This ensures that any collective military action has international legitimacy and
is not unilateral. Hence statement 1 is correct.
A state has the inherent right of self-defence, but this arises only when it is actually
attacked. This means a country cannot use self-defence as a justification for pre-emptive
or preventive strikes; the right is triggered after an armed attack occurs. Such action is
permitted until the Security Council takes measures to maintain international peace.
Any measures a state takes in exercising self-defence must be immediately reported to
the Security Council. This ensures transparency and accountability in the use of force,
allowing the Council to monitor the situation and take further action if required Hence
statement 2 is correct.
The UNSC first tries non-military measures, such as economic sanctions, trade
embargoes, travel bans, or diplomatic restrictions. If these measures are insufficient to
restore peace, the Council can escalate to military force to compel compliance and
re-establish stability. The decision to use military force is collective and binding,
meaning it is not unilateral; the action must be authorized by the Security Council,
ensuring international legitimacy.Hence statement 3 is correct
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
The Security Council can authorize the use of force against a country when there is a
breach of international peace or an act of aggression. This power allows the Council to
take measures, including economic sanctions or military action, to restore peace and
security. This ensures that any collective military action has international legitimacy and
is not unilateral. Hence statement 1 is correct.
A state has the inherent right of self-defence, but this arises only when it is actually
attacked. This means a country cannot use self-defence as a justification for pre-emptive
or preventive strikes; the right is triggered after an armed attack occurs. Such action is
permitted until the Security Council takes measures to maintain international peace.
Any measures a state takes in exercising self-defence must be immediately reported to
the Security Council. This ensures transparency and accountability in the use of force,
allowing the Council to monitor the situation and take further action if required Hence
statement 2 is correct.
The UNSC first tries non-military measures, such as economic sanctions, trade
embargoes, travel bans, or diplomatic restrictions. If these measures are insufficient to
restore peace, the Council can escalate to military force to compel compliance and
re-establish stability. The decision to use military force is collective and binding,
meaning it is not unilateral; the action must be authorized by the Security Council,
ensuring international legitimacy.Hence statement 3 is correct
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
2) 3) Daily MCQ: 06.02.2026
With reference to the UN Charter, consider the following statements:
1. UNSC can authorize the use of force against a country in cases of a breach of
international peace or an act of aggression.
2. The inherent right of self-defence of a state under the UN Charter arises only when
an actual armed attack occurs.
3. The UNSC may authorize the use of military force to restore international peace if
non-military measures prove insufficient
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements about silver:
1. Mexico is the largest producer of silver in the world.
2. Silver demand has increased significantly due to its use in solar photovoltaics.
3. India is the world's largest importer of silver.
With reference to the UN Charter, consider the following statements:
1. UNSC can authorize the use of force against a country in cases of a breach of
international peace or an act of aggression.
2. The inherent right of self-defence of a state under the UN Charter arises only when
an actual armed attack occurs.
3. The UNSC may authorize the use of military force to restore international peace if
non-military measures prove insufficient
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements about silver:
1. Mexico is the largest producer of silver in the world.
2. Silver demand has increased significantly due to its use in solar photovoltaics.
3. India is the world's largest importer of silver.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
14%
1 and 2 only
19%
2 and 3 only
15%
1 and 3 only
53%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
●
Mexico remains the largest producer of silver in the world, significantly outpacing other
major producers like China and Peru.Hence statement 1 is correct
●
Silver is a critical component in Solar Photovoltaics (PV) because of its superior electrical
conductivity. The solar industry now accounts for approximately 14–15% of global silver
demand, a figure that is rising rapidly as green energy installations expand.Hence
statement 2 is correct
●
India is the world’s largest importer and consumer of silver. In recent years, India's
imports have surged due to industrial requirements (solar, electronics) and its role as a
safe-haven investment.Hence statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
●
Mexico remains the largest producer of silver in the world, significantly outpacing other
major producers like China and Peru.Hence statement 1 is correct
●
Silver is a critical component in Solar Photovoltaics (PV) because of its superior electrical
conductivity. The solar industry now accounts for approximately 14–15% of global silver
demand, a figure that is rising rapidly as green energy installations expand.Hence
statement 2 is correct
●
India is the world’s largest importer and consumer of silver. In recent years, India's
imports have surged due to industrial requirements (solar, electronics) and its role as a
safe-haven investment.Hence statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
With reference to the Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter aircraft, consider the following statements:
1. It is a 4.5-generation multirole fighter aircraft.
2. It is an indigenously developed fighter aircraft of India.
3. It can be equipped to launch the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
1. It is a 4.5-generation multirole fighter aircraft.
2. It is an indigenously developed fighter aircraft of India.
3. It can be equipped to launch the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Anonymous Quiz
54%
1 and 3 only
18%
1 only
14%
2 and 3 only
14%
1,2 and 3
The Sukhoi Su-30MKI is a twin-engine, multirole fighter plane. It is officially classified as
a 4.5-generation fighter, which is a highly advanced fourth-generation jet. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
It is not an indigenously developed plane. It was designed by the Russian company
Sukhoi. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) builds it in India under a license from
Russia. India's actual home-grown (indigenous) fighter is the HAL Tejas. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
The Indian Air Force has successfully modified the Su-30MKI so it can carry and fire the
air-launched version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
a 4.5-generation fighter, which is a highly advanced fourth-generation jet. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
It is not an indigenously developed plane. It was designed by the Russian company
Sukhoi. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) builds it in India under a license from
Russia. India's actual home-grown (indigenous) fighter is the HAL Tejas. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
The Indian Air Force has successfully modified the Su-30MKI so it can carry and fire the
air-launched version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
4) Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Health Account
(ABHA):
1. The ABHA ID provides a unique digital health identity that allows individuals to
store and access their medical records digitally.
2. The ABHA ID is mandatory for all citizens to avail benefits under the Ayushman
Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
(ABHA):
1. The ABHA ID provides a unique digital health identity that allows individuals to
store and access their medical records digitally.
2. The ABHA ID is mandatory for all citizens to avail benefits under the Ayushman
Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
39%
1 only
3%
2 only
55%
Both 1 and 2
3%
Neither 1 nor 2
4) Answer: (A)
The Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) provides a unique 14-digit digital health
ID for every individual.
It allows people to store, access, and share their medical records digitally with hospitals
and doctors across India under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
ABHA ID is voluntary, not mandatory. Citizens can choose whether or not to create an
ABHA ID, and it is not compulsory to avail benefits under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana. Hence, statement 1 is Incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
The Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) provides a unique 14-digit digital health
ID for every individual.
It allows people to store, access, and share their medical records digitally with hospitals
and doctors across India under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
ABHA ID is voluntary, not mandatory. Citizens can choose whether or not to create an
ABHA ID, and it is not compulsory to avail benefits under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana. Hence, statement 1 is Incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
5) With reference to Green Bonds, consider the following statement:
1. Public sector undertakings and private companies can issue Green Bonds in India,
but foreign companies cannot.
2. 3. Green Bonds issued in India are automatically exempt from all taxes.
The regulation of Green Bonds in India falls under the purview of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI).
1. Public sector undertakings and private companies can issue Green Bonds in India,
but foreign companies cannot.
2. 3. Green Bonds issued in India are automatically exempt from all taxes.
The regulation of Green Bonds in India falls under the purview of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI).
Which of the following statements is/are Incorrect ?
Anonymous Quiz
28%
1 only
16%
2 and 3 only
16%
2 only
40%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
●
Green bonds are fixed-income debt instruments issued to raise funds for projects with
environmental benefits. They function like traditional bonds—where the issuer borrows
capital from investors and repays it with interest—but the proceeds are ring-fenced
exclusively for environmentally sustainable projects such as renewable energy, energy
efficiency, pollution control, sustainable water management, and climate change mitigation.
They can be issued by governments, corporations, financial institutions, and multilateral
agencies, enabling investors to combine financial returns with environmental objectives.
Globally, the green bond market has grown rapidly and has become a mainstream asset
class, with outstanding green debt exceeding about $3.5 trillion by 2026.
●
While public sector undertakings (PSUs) and private companies are the most active issuers
of Green Bonds in India, foreign companies and institutions can also access the Indian
market. Foreign entities may issue debt securities at the GIFT City International
Financial Services Centre (IFSC)—for instance, DFCC Bank of Sri Lanka listed a green
bond on India INX. Additionally, foreign firms can raise funds from Indian investors by
issuing Masala Bonds, which are rupee-denominated bonds issued in overseas markets.
Hence statement 1 Incorrect.
●
In India, the interest income earned from Green Bonds is taxable and treated as
“Income from Other Sources,
” meaning it is added to the investor’s total income and
taxed according to the applicable income tax slab rate; in many corporate or municipal
green bonds, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) at 10% may apply if the annual interest
exceeds ₹10,000. If the bonds are sold in the secondary market or redeemed at a price
higher than the purchase price, capital gains tax is applicable: short-term capital gains
(holding period less than 12 months) are taxed at the applicable slab rate, while
long-term capital gains (holding period more than 12 months) on listed bonds are taxed
at 12.5% without indexation under the 2025–26 tax regime. A limited tax benefit exists
under Section 54EC, where certain institutions such as the Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency (IREDA) issue specified bonds that allow investors to claim
exemption from capital gains arising from the sale of property if the gains are reinvested
in these bonds within six months, subject to a maximum limit of ₹50 lakh, though the
interest earned on such bonds remains fully taxable. Hence statement 2 Incorrect.
In India, the regulation of Green Bonds depends on the type of issuer rather than the
instrument itself. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates green
bonds issued by companies, public sector undertakings (PSUs), and municipalities
under its Green Debt Securities framework. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates
Sovereign Green Bonds issued by the Central Government. Additionally, bonds issued
within the GIFT City International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) fall under the
regulatory jurisdiction of the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore D is the right answe
●
Green bonds are fixed-income debt instruments issued to raise funds for projects with
environmental benefits. They function like traditional bonds—where the issuer borrows
capital from investors and repays it with interest—but the proceeds are ring-fenced
exclusively for environmentally sustainable projects such as renewable energy, energy
efficiency, pollution control, sustainable water management, and climate change mitigation.
They can be issued by governments, corporations, financial institutions, and multilateral
agencies, enabling investors to combine financial returns with environmental objectives.
Globally, the green bond market has grown rapidly and has become a mainstream asset
class, with outstanding green debt exceeding about $3.5 trillion by 2026.
●
While public sector undertakings (PSUs) and private companies are the most active issuers
of Green Bonds in India, foreign companies and institutions can also access the Indian
market. Foreign entities may issue debt securities at the GIFT City International
Financial Services Centre (IFSC)—for instance, DFCC Bank of Sri Lanka listed a green
bond on India INX. Additionally, foreign firms can raise funds from Indian investors by
issuing Masala Bonds, which are rupee-denominated bonds issued in overseas markets.
Hence statement 1 Incorrect.
●
In India, the interest income earned from Green Bonds is taxable and treated as
“Income from Other Sources,
” meaning it is added to the investor’s total income and
taxed according to the applicable income tax slab rate; in many corporate or municipal
green bonds, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) at 10% may apply if the annual interest
exceeds ₹10,000. If the bonds are sold in the secondary market or redeemed at a price
higher than the purchase price, capital gains tax is applicable: short-term capital gains
(holding period less than 12 months) are taxed at the applicable slab rate, while
long-term capital gains (holding period more than 12 months) on listed bonds are taxed
at 12.5% without indexation under the 2025–26 tax regime. A limited tax benefit exists
under Section 54EC, where certain institutions such as the Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency (IREDA) issue specified bonds that allow investors to claim
exemption from capital gains arising from the sale of property if the gains are reinvested
in these bonds within six months, subject to a maximum limit of ₹50 lakh, though the
interest earned on such bonds remains fully taxable. Hence statement 2 Incorrect.
In India, the regulation of Green Bonds depends on the type of issuer rather than the
instrument itself. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates green
bonds issued by companies, public sector undertakings (PSUs), and municipalities
under its Green Debt Securities framework. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates
Sovereign Green Bonds issued by the Central Government. Additionally, bonds issued
within the GIFT City International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) fall under the
regulatory jurisdiction of the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore D is the right answe
1) Daily MCQ: 07.03.2026
With reference to quantum computing, consider the following statements:
1. Quantum computers rely on qubits, unlike classical computers which process
information using binary values
2. Qubits in quantum computers can exist in multiple states simultaneously, unlike
classical bits, which can exist in one state at a time.
With reference to quantum computing, consider the following statements:
1. Quantum computers rely on qubits, unlike classical computers which process
information using binary values
2. Qubits in quantum computers can exist in multiple states simultaneously, unlike
classical bits, which can exist in one state at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
2%
1 only
8%
2 only
87%
Both 1 and 2
3%
Neither 1 nor 2
1) Answer: (C)
Quantum computing is a type of computing that uses the principles of quantum
mechanics, the laws that govern the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scales
to process information in fundamentally different ways from classical computers. Unlike
conventional computers that use transistors and work with binary digits (bits) representing
either 0 or 1, quantum computers use quantum bits or qubits. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
A qubit can represent 0, 1, or a combination of both at the same time due to a quantum
phenomenon called superposition. This allows quantum computers to explore many
possible solutions simultaneously, giving them potential advantages for solving certain
problems that are extremely hard for classical computers which exist in one state at a time.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Therefore , option C is the correct answer.
Quantum computing is a type of computing that uses the principles of quantum
mechanics, the laws that govern the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scales
to process information in fundamentally different ways from classical computers. Unlike
conventional computers that use transistors and work with binary digits (bits) representing
either 0 or 1, quantum computers use quantum bits or qubits. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
A qubit can represent 0, 1, or a combination of both at the same time due to a quantum
phenomenon called superposition. This allows quantum computers to explore many
possible solutions simultaneously, giving them potential advantages for solving certain
problems that are extremely hard for classical computers which exist in one state at a time.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Therefore , option C is the correct answer.
2) Consider the following statements regarding PM₂.₅ (fine particulate matter):
1. PM₂.₅ particles can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream.
2. The 24-hour average PM₂.₅ limit recommended by WHO is 15 μg/m³.
3. Temperature inversion traps pollutants close to the ground, increasing PM₂.₅ level
1. PM₂.₅ particles can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream.
2. The 24-hour average PM₂.₅ limit recommended by WHO is 15 μg/m³.
3. Temperature inversion traps pollutants close to the ground, increasing PM₂.₅ level
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
13%
1 and 2 only
29%
1 and 3 only
10%
2 and 3 only
47%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
PM₂.₅ particles are small enough (≤2.5 micrometers) to penetrate deep into the lungs (reaching
the alveoli) and even enter the bloodstream, leading to serious health effects like
cardiovascular and respiratory issues. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
According to the latest WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (updated in 2021), the
recommended 24-hour average guideline level for PM₂.₅ is 15 μg/m³ (with an annual mean of
5 μg/m³). This is the health-protective guideline value. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Temperature inversion occurs when a layer of warmer air traps cooler air near the ground,
preventing vertical mixing and dispersion of pollutants. This stable atmospheric condition
traps emissions close to the surface, significantly increasing PM₂.₅ concentrations, especially
during winter in valleys or urban areas. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore D is the right answer
PM₂.₅ particles are small enough (≤2.5 micrometers) to penetrate deep into the lungs (reaching
the alveoli) and even enter the bloodstream, leading to serious health effects like
cardiovascular and respiratory issues. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
According to the latest WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (updated in 2021), the
recommended 24-hour average guideline level for PM₂.₅ is 15 μg/m³ (with an annual mean of
5 μg/m³). This is the health-protective guideline value. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Temperature inversion occurs when a layer of warmer air traps cooler air near the ground,
preventing vertical mixing and dispersion of pollutants. This stable atmospheric condition
traps emissions close to the surface, significantly increasing PM₂.₅ concentrations, especially
during winter in valleys or urban areas. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore D is the right answer