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4) With reference to the potential applications of Green Ammonia, consider the following
statements:
1. It can be used as an alternative fertilizer input to help decarbonize the fertilizer
industry.
2. It can be stored in bulk tanks, serving as a chemical battery.
3. It can be blended with coal in thermal power plants to reduce carbon emissions.
4. It serves as a zero-carbon fuel for international maritime shipping
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 and 2 only
19%
1,2 and 3 only
8%
2,3 and 4 only
62%
1,2,3 and 4
4) Answer: (D)
Ammonia is the primary feedstock for Urea and DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate). Green
ammonia is produced using renewable energy and can replace traditional ammonia made from
fossil fuels, helping to lower carbon emissions from fertilizer production. It is used as a
feedstock in making nitrogen-based fertilizers for agriculture.Hence statement 1 is correct.
Green ammonia can be liquefied and stored in large tanks for long periods. Because it has a
higher energy density than compressed hydrogen, it acts as a liquid carrier for renewable
energy
, essentially functioning as a long-duration chemical battery that can be shipped
globally.hence statement 2 is correct.
Green Ammonia does not contain carbon. When blended (co-fired) with coal in existing
power plants, it reduces the overall carbon intensity of the electricity generated. Countries like
Japan are currently leading large-scale trials to replace up to 20% of coal with ammonia to
meet immediate emission targets without abandoning existing infrastructure. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Ammonia, When it is burned in a modified internal combustion engine or used in a fuel cell,
does not produce carbon dioxide . This makes it a "zero-carbon" fuel at the point of use. For
the shipping industry, which struggles with the weight of heavy batteries, ammonia provides a
dense, liquid energy source that can power a ship across an ocean without releasing
greenhouse gases.hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option D is the correct answer.
5) With reference to the Independence of Election Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners can be
removed only in the manner of removal of a Supreme Court judge.
2. The salaries and allowances of the CEC and Election Commissioners are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of Indi
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
3%
1 only
39%
2 only
49%
Both 1 and 2
9%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)

According to Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner
can indeed only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court.

Other Election Commissioners do not enjoy this same level of security. They can be
removed by the President simply upon the recommendation of the Chief Election
Commissioner
.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The salaries, allowances, and other expenses of the CEC and Election
Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 324.

Being charged on the Consolidated Fund means they do not depend on the
discretionary grant of the government
, giving the ECI financial autonomy.

This is similar to other independent constitutional bodies like the Supreme Court
and Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG)
.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer
The Hindu-Frontline magazine has published a lead article titled "Rethinking the Office of the Governor" based on Chapter 5 of the Justice Kurian Joseph Committee Report on Union-State Relations. The print edition will follow shortly.

Frontline magazine has been good enough to make the online version free to read (i. e. outside the paywall) for 5 days. Today is day 2. So, if you wish to print the article in PDF form or otherwise, please do it within the next 3 days. 👇
https://frontline.thehindu.com/the-nation/rethinking-governor-office-federal-balance-india/article70698419.ece
1) Daily MCQ: 26.02.2026
With reference to Exercise MILAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy
2. It strengthens India's position as a key player in Indo-Pacific region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
1%
1 only
13%
2 only
83%
Both 1 and 2
3%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
Exercise MILAN is a multilateral (not bilateral) naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. It
began in 1995 with just four nations (Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) and has
grown exponentially. The most recent 13th edition, which concluded on February 25, 2026,
saw participation from over 70 friendly foreign nations, making it India's largest-ever
multinational naval engagement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
The exercise is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy. By hosting navies from across
the world in the Bay of Bengal, India reinforces its role as a "Net Security Provider" and a
"Preferred Security Partner." It aligns with the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the
Region) initiative and the MAHASAGAR vision, directly strengthening India's strategic
influence and leadership in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence , Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by the HPV (human papillomavirus)
vaccine?
Answer: (B)

Breast Cancer is a non-communicable disease primarily influenced by genetics and
lifestyle factors. It is not caused by a virus, and therefore, there is no vaccine
available
for its prevention. Hence, option A is incorrect.

Cervical cancer is the primary disease prevented by the HPV vaccine. The vaccine
works by stimulating the immune system to recognize and block the Human
Papillomavirus
, which is responsible for over 95% of cervical cancer cases
worldwide. By preventing the initial viral infection, the vaccine stops the long-term
cellular changes that lead to malignancy. Hence, option B is correct.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. It is prevented by separate vaccines, such as
the Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccines, not the HPV vaccine. Hence, option C is
incorrect.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria (Treponema pallidum).
Because it is bacterial rather than viral, it cannot be prevented by the HPV vaccine.
Hence, option D is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct answe
3) Consider the following statements regarding El Niño:
1. El Niño is characterised by the weakening of trade winds over the equatorial Pacific
Ocean.
2. It generally strengthens the Indian southwest monsoon.
3. El Niño is an oceanic phenomenon whereas Southern oscillation is atmospheric
phenomenon.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
64%
1 and 3 only
15%
2 and 3 only
9%
1 and 2 only
11%
1,2 and 3
3) Answer: (A)
Phenomena of El-Nina

Trade winds blow from east to west across the equatorial Pacific.

They push warm surface water toward Indonesia & Australia.

Cold water rises near Peru (upwelling).
During El Niño–Southern Oscillation (El Niño phase)

Trade winds weaken (sometimes even reverse).

Warm water shifts eastward toward the central & eastern Pacific.

Upwelling near Peru reduces.

The entire ocean-atmosphere balance changes.
So weakening of trade winds is a core feature of El Niño. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

El Niño does not strengthen the Indian southwest monsoon.

Instead, it generally weakens it. When warm water shifts toward the eastern Pacific,
the region of rising air (convection) also shifts eastward. As a result, subsidence
(sinking air) increases over the Indian region, reducing cloud formation and rainfall.

This often leads to below-normal monsoon rainfall and sometimes drought conditions
in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

El Niño is the oceanic phenomenon marked by abnormal warming of the central and
eastern equatorial Pacific due to weakening trade winds.

Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric phenomenon involving fluctuations in air
pressure between Tahiti and Darwin (measured by SOI).

Together, they form the coupled ocean–atmosphere system called El Niño–Southern
Oscillation (ENSO)
.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
4) Consider the following statements
Statement I: Large Language Models are widely used for understanding and generating
human language.
Statement II: LLMs are trained using large amounts of text data.
Statement III: LLMs can consume a significant amount of electricity during its usage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
4) Answer: (B)
A Large Language Model (LLM) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) model that is
trained to understand and generate human
LLMs like GPT, BERT, or LLaMA are trained on massive text datasets consisting of
books, articles, and web content. Hence statement II is correct.
This training allows the model to learn grammar, context, semantics, and patterns of
human language
, which directly explains why LLMs can understand and generate text.
Therefore, Statement II explains Statement I.
Training large models requires huge computational resources (GPUs/TPUs) and can
consume tens to hundreds of megawatt-hours of electricity. While this is true, it does not
explain why LLMs can generate human-like text
; it only describes a technical or
resource-related fact
about LLMs. Hence statement 3 is correct, and only one of them
explains statement 1.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
5) Consider the following statements about microplastic pollution:
1. Microplastics act like chemical sponges, absorbing toxic pollutants such as heavy
metals from water.
2. Abandoned fishing gear and river discharge are major sources of microplastics along
India’s coasts.
3. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, require QR/barcodes for tracking
to improve accountability and reduce microplastic pollution
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
1 and 2 only
28%
2 and 3 only
10%
1 and 3 only
58%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles smaller than 5 mm, originating from primary
sources like microbeads in cosmetics and secondary sources from the breakdown of larger
plastics such as bags, bottles, and synthetic clothing fibers. They pollute oceans, rivers, soil,
and air worldwide, harming marine life through ingestion, disrupting ecosystems, and
carrying toxic chemicals that bioaccumulate in food chains.
Due to their small size and high surface-area-to-volume ratio, microplastics act as "chemical
sponges."
They possess a hydrophobic surface that allows them to adsorb and concentrate
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and heavy metals from the surrounding water. When
marine life ingests these particles, these toxic chemicals enter the food chain, eventually
affecting human health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) identifies riverine inputs/discharges (from
rivers carrying land-based plastics) and abandoned, lost, or discarded fishing gear (ALDFG)
as predominant sources of microplastic pollution along India's coasts. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules, 2025, introduced a mandatory
digital tracking system. As of July 1, 2025, all plastic packaging must feature a QR code or
barcode. This initiative aims to:

Ensure Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) compliance.

Trace the origin and quality of the plastic.

Prevent the mixing of non-recyclable polymers that are prone to fragmenting into
microplastics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Officers IAS Academy proudly congratulates Rajeshwari Suve. M for securing All India Rank 2 in the UPSC Civil Services Exam.

She was our Full-time Prelims + Mains Foundation Course Student.

Her dedication, perseverance, and hard work have transformed ambition into achievement. This success story inspires every aspirant to stay focused, trust the process, and prepare with discipline. With the right guidance and determination, serving the nation becomes a reality. 💫