Answer: (C)
●
Pesticide pollution is the contamination of soil, water, air, and food due to excessive
or improper use of chemical pesticides in farming.
●
Sprayed chemicals often spread beyond target pests, entering rivers, groundwater,
and the food chain, harming birds, fish, pollinators, and humans.
●
Glyphosate, Paraquat, Monocrotophos and Tricyclazole are pesticides used in
agriculture, and some of them face restrictions or bans in India due to health and
environmental concerns.
●
Long-term exposure can cause serious health problems like cancer, hormonal
imbalance, and respiratory diseases, as highlighted by the World Health
Organization.
●
To reduce these risks, global agreements such as the Stockholm Convention promote
regulation and safer pest-management practices.
●
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

2) With reference to C. Rajagopalachari, which of the following are correctly associated with
him?
1. Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha
2. Formula to solve the constitutional deadlock between the INC and the Muslim League
3. Swatantra Party

2) Answer: (D)
●
Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, was a towering Indian
freedom fighter, politician, and the first and last Indian Governor-General of
independent India.
●
Inspired by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, he joined the Indian National Congress
and took part in the freedom struggle and later hosted Mahatma Gandhi during the
anti-Rowlatt agitation.
Mirroring the Dandi March, he led the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha (1930) from
Tiruchi to Vedaranyam. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The C.R. Formula (1944): Post-Quit India Movement, he authored the pamphlet
"The Way Out," proposing a formula to solve the constitutional deadlock between
the INC and the Muslim League regarding the demand for Pakistan. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
Rajaji formed the Swatantra Party in 1959 which actively campaigned for a market
economy. As the Chief Minister of Madras State, one of his first acts was to
decontrol the distribution of foodgrains and their prices. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answe

3) Which of the following best describes ‘tetrodotoxin’ recently seen in the news:
(a) It is a neurotoxin present in marine animals
(b) It is a pesticide used in agriculture.
(c) It is an insecticide that controls soil and leaf-feeding pests.
(d) It is a highly toxic chemical that affects the vulture populat

Answer: (A)
●
Tetrodotoxin (TTX) is a highly potent marine neurotoxin. It is a colorless, weakly
basic crystalline compound (C₁₁H₁₇N₃O₈) that darkens above 220 °C. Naturally, it is
found in the skin, liver, and intestines of certain fish like pufferfish, porcupine
fish, ocean sunfish, and some newts and salamanders. Human poisoning typically
occurs when these animals are improperly prepared and consumed. TTX blocks
nerve-to-muscle signal transmission, leading to progressive muscle paralysis. Its
toxicity is over 1000 times that of sodium cyanide. There is no specific antidote, and
treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on managing symptoms and sustaining vital
functions. Hence option 1 is correct.
●
Chlorpyrifos is an organophosphate pesticide widely used in India to control insect
pests on crops like rice, cotton, brinjal, sugarcane, and citrus. It is classified as
“moderately hazardous” by the World Health Organization (WHO) and is approved
for use on 18 crops under the Insecticides Act, 1968. Hence option 2 is Incorrect.
●
Diazinon is a widely used, broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide that controls
soil and foliage pests on fruit, vegetable, and field crops, and is also applied in
livestock ear tags for cattle. Hence option 3 is Incorrect.
●
Endosulfan is a brown crystalline insecticide, used to control pests in food and
non-food crops and as a wood preservative; it is banned globally but allowed in
India with restrictions, and its heavy use in Kerala’s cashew farms has caused
serious health issues. It is also a highly toxic chemical that affects the vulture
population. Hence option 4 is Incorrect.
●
Therefore option A is the correct answer.

4) With reference to the potential applications of Green Ammonia, consider the following
statements:
1. It can be used as an alternative fertilizer input to help decarbonize the fertilizer
industry.
2. It can be stored in bulk tanks, serving as a chemical battery.
3. It can be blended with coal in thermal power plants to reduce carbon emissions.
4. It serves as a zero-carbon fuel for international maritime shipping

4) Answer: (D)
Ammonia is the primary feedstock for Urea and DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate). Green
ammonia is produced using renewable energy and can replace traditional ammonia made from
fossil fuels, helping to lower carbon emissions from fertilizer production. It is used as a
feedstock in making nitrogen-based fertilizers for agriculture.Hence statement 1 is correct.
Green ammonia can be liquefied and stored in large tanks for long periods. Because it has a
higher energy density than compressed hydrogen, it acts as a liquid carrier for renewable
energy, essentially functioning as a long-duration chemical battery that can be shipped
globally.hence statement 2 is correct.
Green Ammonia does not contain carbon. When blended (co-fired) with coal in existing
power plants, it reduces the overall carbon intensity of the electricity generated. Countries like
Japan are currently leading large-scale trials to replace up to 20% of coal with ammonia to
meet immediate emission targets without abandoning existing infrastructure. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Ammonia, When it is burned in a modified internal combustion engine or used in a fuel cell,
does not produce carbon dioxide . This makes it a "zero-carbon" fuel at the point of use. For
the shipping industry, which struggles with the weight of heavy batteries, ammonia provides a
dense, liquid energy source that can power a ship across an ocean without releasing
greenhouse gases.hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option D is the correct answer.

5) With reference to the Independence of Election Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners can be
removed only in the manner of removal of a Supreme Court judge.
2. The salaries and allowances of the CEC and Election Commissioners are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of Indi

Answer: (B)
●
According to Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner
can indeed only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court.
●
Other Election Commissioners do not enjoy this same level of security. They can be
removed by the President simply upon the recommendation of the Chief Election
Commissioner.
●
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
●
The salaries, allowances, and other expenses of the CEC and Election
Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 324.
●
Being charged on the Consolidated Fund means they do not depend on the
discretionary grant of the government, giving the ECI financial autonomy.
●
This is similar to other independent constitutional bodies like the Supreme Court
and Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG).
●
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option B is the correct answer

The Hindu-Frontline magazine has published a lead article titled "Rethinking the Office of the Governor" based on Chapter 5 of the Justice Kurian Joseph Committee Report on Union-State Relations. The print edition will follow shortly.

Frontline magazine has been good enough to make the online version free to read (i. e. outside the paywall) for 5 days. Today is day 2. So, if you wish to print the article in PDF form or otherwise, please do it within the next 3 days. 👇
https://frontline.thehindu.com/the-nation/rethinking-governor-office-federal-balance-india/article70698419.ece

1) Daily MCQ: 26.02.2026
With reference to Exercise MILAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy
2. It strengthens India's position as a key player in Indo-Pacific region

Answer: (C)
Exercise MILAN is a multilateral (not bilateral) naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. It
began in 1995 with just four nations (Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) and has
grown exponentially. The most recent 13th edition, which concluded on February 25, 2026,
saw participation from over 70 friendly foreign nations, making it India's largest-ever
multinational naval engagement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
The exercise is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy. By hosting navies from across
the world in the Bay of Bengal, India reinforces its role as a "Net Security Provider" and a
"Preferred Security Partner." It aligns with the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the
Region) initiative and the MAHASAGAR vision, directly strengthening India's strategic
influence and leadership in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence , Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by the HPV (human papillomavirus)
vaccine?

Answer: (B)
●
Breast Cancer is a non-communicable disease primarily influenced by genetics and
lifestyle factors. It is not caused by a virus, and therefore, there is no vaccine
available for its prevention. Hence, option A is incorrect.
●
Cervical cancer is the primary disease prevented by the HPV vaccine. The vaccine
works by stimulating the immune system to recognize and block the Human
Papillomavirus, which is responsible for over 95% of cervical cancer cases
worldwide. By preventing the initial viral infection, the vaccine stops the long-term
cellular changes that lead to malignancy. Hence, option B is correct.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. It is prevented by separate vaccines, such as
the Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccines, not the HPV vaccine. Hence, option C is
incorrect.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria (Treponema pallidum).
Because it is bacterial rather than viral, it cannot be prevented by the HPV vaccine.
Hence, option D is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct answe

3) Consider the following statements regarding El Niño:
1. El Niño is characterised by the weakening of trade winds over the equatorial Pacific
Ocean.
2. It generally strengthens the Indian southwest monsoon.
3. El Niño is an oceanic phenomenon whereas Southern oscillation is atmospheric
phenomenon.

3) Answer: (A)
Phenomena of El-Nina
●
Trade winds blow from east to west across the equatorial Pacific.
●
They push warm surface water toward Indonesia & Australia.
●
Cold water rises near Peru (upwelling).
During El Niño–Southern Oscillation (El Niño phase)
●
Trade winds weaken (sometimes even reverse).
●
Warm water shifts eastward toward the central & eastern Pacific.
●
Upwelling near Peru reduces.
●
The entire ocean-atmosphere balance changes.
So weakening of trade winds is a core feature of El Niño. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
El Niño does not strengthen the Indian southwest monsoon.
●
Instead, it generally weakens it. When warm water shifts toward the eastern Pacific,
the region of rising air (convection) also shifts eastward. As a result, subsidence
(sinking air) increases over the Indian region, reducing cloud formation and rainfall.
●
This often leads to below-normal monsoon rainfall and sometimes drought conditions
in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
●
El Niño is the oceanic phenomenon marked by abnormal warming of the central and
eastern equatorial Pacific due to weakening trade winds.
●
Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric phenomenon involving fluctuations in air
pressure between Tahiti and Darwin (measured by SOI).
●
Together, they form the coupled ocean–atmosphere system called El Niño–Southern
Oscillation (ENSO).
●
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.