Which of the statements given above are cor
Anonymous Quiz
58%
1 and 3 only
17%
2 and 3 only
12%
1 and 2 only
13%
1, 2 and 3
3) Answer: (A)
Phenomena of El-Nina
●
Trade winds blow from east to west across the equatorial Pacific.
●
They push warm surface water toward Indonesia & Australia.
●
Cold water rises near Peru (upwelling).
During El Niño–Southern Oscillation (El Niño phase)
●
Trade winds weaken (sometimes even reverse).
●
Warm water shifts eastward toward the central & eastern Pacific.
●
Upwelling near Peru reduces.
●
The entire ocean-atmosphere balance changes.
So weakening of trade winds is a core feature of El Niño. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
El Niño does not strengthen the Indian southwest monsoon.
●
Instead, it generally weakens it. When warm water shifts toward the eastern Pacific,
the region of rising air (convection) also shifts eastward. As a result, subsidence
(sinking air) increases over the Indian region, reducing cloud formation and rainfall.
●
This often leads to below-normal monsoon rainfall and sometimes drought conditions
in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
●
El Niño is the oceanic phenomenon marked by abnormal warming of the central and
eastern equatorial Pacific due to weakening trade winds.
●
Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric phenomenon involving fluctuations in air
pressure between Tahiti and Darwin (measured by SOI).
●
Together, they form the coupled ocean–atmosphere system called El Niño–Southern
Oscillation (ENSO).
●
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Phenomena of El-Nina
●
Trade winds blow from east to west across the equatorial Pacific.
●
They push warm surface water toward Indonesia & Australia.
●
Cold water rises near Peru (upwelling).
During El Niño–Southern Oscillation (El Niño phase)
●
Trade winds weaken (sometimes even reverse).
●
Warm water shifts eastward toward the central & eastern Pacific.
●
Upwelling near Peru reduces.
●
The entire ocean-atmosphere balance changes.
So weakening of trade winds is a core feature of El Niño. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
El Niño does not strengthen the Indian southwest monsoon.
●
Instead, it generally weakens it. When warm water shifts toward the eastern Pacific,
the region of rising air (convection) also shifts eastward. As a result, subsidence
(sinking air) increases over the Indian region, reducing cloud formation and rainfall.
●
This often leads to below-normal monsoon rainfall and sometimes drought conditions
in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
●
El Niño is the oceanic phenomenon marked by abnormal warming of the central and
eastern equatorial Pacific due to weakening trade winds.
●
Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric phenomenon involving fluctuations in air
pressure between Tahiti and Darwin (measured by SOI).
●
Together, they form the coupled ocean–atmosphere system called El Niño–Southern
Oscillation (ENSO).
●
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
4) Consider the following statements
Statement I: Large Language Models are widely used for understanding and generating
human language.
Statement II: LLMs are trained using large amounts of text data.
Statement III: LLMs can consume a significant amount of electricity during its usage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Large Language Models are widely used for understanding and generating
human language.
Statement II: LLMs are trained using large amounts of text data.
Statement III: LLMs can consume a significant amount of electricity during its usage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
4) Answer: (B)
A Large Language Model (LLM) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) model that is
trained to understand and generate human language.OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
LLMs like GPT, BERT, or LLaMA are trained on massive text datasets consisting of
books, articles, and web content. Hence statement II is correct.
This training allows the model to learn grammar, context, semantics, and patterns of
human language, which directly explains why LLMs can understand and generate text.
Therefore, Statement II explains Statement I.
Training large models requires huge computational resources (GPUs/TPUs) and can
consume tens to hundreds of megawatt-hours of electricity. While this is true, it does not
explain why LLMs can generate human-like text; it only describes a technical or
resource-related fact about LLMs. Hence statement 3 is correct, and only one of them
explains statement 1.
Therefore, option B is the correct answ
A Large Language Model (LLM) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) model that is
trained to understand and generate human language.OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
LLMs like GPT, BERT, or LLaMA are trained on massive text datasets consisting of
books, articles, and web content. Hence statement II is correct.
This training allows the model to learn grammar, context, semantics, and patterns of
human language, which directly explains why LLMs can understand and generate text.
Therefore, Statement II explains Statement I.
Training large models requires huge computational resources (GPUs/TPUs) and can
consume tens to hundreds of megawatt-hours of electricity. While this is true, it does not
explain why LLMs can generate human-like text; it only describes a technical or
resource-related fact about LLMs. Hence statement 3 is correct, and only one of them
explains statement 1.
Therefore, option B is the correct answ
5) Consider the following statements about microplastic pollution:
1. Microplastics act like chemical sponges, absorbing toxic pollutants such as heavy
metals from water.
2. Abandoned fishing gear and river discharge are major sources of microplastics along
India’s coasts.
3. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, require QR/barcodes for tracking
to improve accountability and reduce microplastic pollution.
1. Microplastics act like chemical sponges, absorbing toxic pollutants such as heavy
metals from water.
2. Abandoned fishing gear and river discharge are major sources of microplastics along
India’s coasts.
3. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, require QR/barcodes for tracking
to improve accountability and reduce microplastic pollution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 and 2 only
29%
2 and 3 only
8%
1 and 3 only
51%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles smaller than 5 mm, originating from primary
sources like microbeads in cosmetics and secondary sources from the breakdown of larger
plastics such as bags, bottles, and synthetic clothing fibers. They pollute oceans, rivers, soil,
and air worldwide, harming marine life through ingestion, disrupting ecosystems, and
carrying toxic chemicals that bioaccumulate in food chains.
Due to their small size and high surface-area-to-volume ratio, microplastics act as "chemical
sponges." They possess a hydrophobic surface that allows them to adsorb and concentrate
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and heavy metals from the surrounding water. When
marine life ingests these particles, these toxic chemicals enter the food chain, eventually
affecting human health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) identifies riverine inputs/discharges (from
rivers carrying land-based plastics) and abandoned, lost, or discarded fishing gear (ALDFG)
as predominant sources of microplastic pollution along India's coasts. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules, 2025, introduced a mandatory
digital tracking system. As of July 1, 2025, all plastic packaging must feature a QR code or
barcode. This initiative aims to:
●
Ensure Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) compliance.
●
Trace the origin and quality of the plastic.
●
Prevent the mixing of non-recyclable polymers that are prone to fragmenting into
microplastics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles smaller than 5 mm, originating from primary
sources like microbeads in cosmetics and secondary sources from the breakdown of larger
plastics such as bags, bottles, and synthetic clothing fibers. They pollute oceans, rivers, soil,
and air worldwide, harming marine life through ingestion, disrupting ecosystems, and
carrying toxic chemicals that bioaccumulate in food chains.
Due to their small size and high surface-area-to-volume ratio, microplastics act as "chemical
sponges." They possess a hydrophobic surface that allows them to adsorb and concentrate
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and heavy metals from the surrounding water. When
marine life ingests these particles, these toxic chemicals enter the food chain, eventually
affecting human health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) identifies riverine inputs/discharges (from
rivers carrying land-based plastics) and abandoned, lost, or discarded fishing gear (ALDFG)
as predominant sources of microplastic pollution along India's coasts. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules, 2025, introduced a mandatory
digital tracking system. As of July 1, 2025, all plastic packaging must feature a QR code or
barcode. This initiative aims to:
●
Ensure Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) compliance.
●
Trace the origin and quality of the plastic.
●
Prevent the mixing of non-recyclable polymers that are prone to fragmenting into
microplastics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
1) Consider the following statements:
1. India’s crude oil import dependence is rising mainly due to increasing domestic fuel
demand and stagnant domestic production.
2. High dependence on imported crude oil can widen India’s trade deficit and put
pressure on the rupee
1. India’s crude oil import dependence is rising mainly due to increasing domestic fuel
demand and stagnant domestic production.
2. High dependence on imported crude oil can widen India’s trade deficit and put
pressure on the rupee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Anonymous Quiz
3%
1 only
15%
2 only
81%
Both 1 and 2
1%
Neither 1 nor 2
1) Answer: (C)
India's crude oil import dependence is indeed rising, primarily due to increasing domestic fuel
demand (driven by economic growth, rising vehicle ownership, transportation needs,
industrialization, and India becoming the world's largest driver of oil demand growth in recent
years) and stagnant (or even declining) domestic production. Recent data from the Petroleum
Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) shows import dependence reaching 88.6% in the first 10
months of FY26 (up from 88.2% in the same period of FY25 and 88.3% for full FY25),
marking a continuing upward trend and approaching record highs. Domestic crude oil
production has remained largely flat or shown declines in recent years (e.g., averaging around
700 kb/d in 2023 with projections for further gradual decline), failing to keep pace with
surging consumption. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
High dependence on imported crude oil significantly widens India's trade deficit (as crude oil
remains one of the largest single items in the import basket, increasing the import bill when
volumes or prices rise) and exerts downward pressure on the rupee (due to higher demand for
US dollars to pay for imports, contributing to rupee depreciation amid widening current
India's crude oil import dependence is indeed rising, primarily due to increasing domestic fuel
demand (driven by economic growth, rising vehicle ownership, transportation needs,
industrialization, and India becoming the world's largest driver of oil demand growth in recent
years) and stagnant (or even declining) domestic production. Recent data from the Petroleum
Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) shows import dependence reaching 88.6% in the first 10
months of FY26 (up from 88.2% in the same period of FY25 and 88.3% for full FY25),
marking a continuing upward trend and approaching record highs. Domestic crude oil
production has remained largely flat or shown declines in recent years (e.g., averaging around
700 kb/d in 2023 with projections for further gradual decline), failing to keep pace with
surging consumption. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
High dependence on imported crude oil significantly widens India's trade deficit (as crude oil
remains one of the largest single items in the import basket, increasing the import bill when
volumes or prices rise) and exerts downward pressure on the rupee (due to higher demand for
US dollars to pay for imports, contributing to rupee depreciation amid widening current
2) Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
1. It applies to companies outside India if they offer goods or services to individuals
located within India.
2. It allows the processing of personal data for certain legitimate uses without explicit
consent.
3. It recognizes the right of individuals to seek correction and erasure of their personal
data to protect their privacy.
1. It applies to companies outside India if they offer goods or services to individuals
located within India.
2. It allows the processing of personal data for certain legitimate uses without explicit
consent.
3. It recognizes the right of individuals to seek correction and erasure of their personal
data to protect their privacy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
1 and 2 only
28%
1 and 3 only
22%
2 and 3 only
45%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 is India’s primary law governing the
processing of digital personal data. It aims to balance an individual’s right to privacy with
the need to process data for lawful purposes.
The Act has extra-territorial application.
It applies not only to entities within India but also to foreign companies if they process
personal data in connection with:
●
Offering goods or services to individuals in India, or
●
Profiling individuals within India.
This ensures that global tech platforms and foreign e-commerce companies handling Indian
users’ data are covered under Indian law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
While consent is the primary basis for processing personal data, the Act allows certain
“legitimate uses” where consent is not required.
These include:
●
State functions (e.g., subsidies, benefits, licenses)
●
Compliance with law or court orders
●
Medical emergencies
●
Employment-related purposes
●
Public interest situations (e.g., disaster response)
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Act recognizes individuals as Data Principals and grants them specific rights:
●
Right to access information about their personal data
●
Right to correction and updating
●
Right to erasure (when purpose is complete or consent is withdrawn)
●
Right to grievance redressal
●
Right to nominate another person (in case of death/incapacity)
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 is India’s primary law governing the
processing of digital personal data. It aims to balance an individual’s right to privacy with
the need to process data for lawful purposes.
The Act has extra-territorial application.
It applies not only to entities within India but also to foreign companies if they process
personal data in connection with:
●
Offering goods or services to individuals in India, or
●
Profiling individuals within India.
This ensures that global tech platforms and foreign e-commerce companies handling Indian
users’ data are covered under Indian law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
While consent is the primary basis for processing personal data, the Act allows certain
“legitimate uses” where consent is not required.
These include:
●
State functions (e.g., subsidies, benefits, licenses)
●
Compliance with law or court orders
●
Medical emergencies
●
Employment-related purposes
●
Public interest situations (e.g., disaster response)
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Act recognizes individuals as Data Principals and grants them specific rights:
●
Right to access information about their personal data
●
Right to correction and updating
●
Right to erasure (when purpose is complete or consent is withdrawn)
●
Right to grievance redressal
●
Right to nominate another person (in case of death/incapacity)
3) Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI)
1. TRAI is a statutory body that has the authority to regulate tariffs and pricing of
telecom services
2. 3. TRAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications.
Appeals against the decisions of TRAI lie before the Telecom Disputes Settlement and
Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
(TRAI)
1. TRAI is a statutory body that has the authority to regulate tariffs and pricing of
telecom services
2. 3. TRAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications.
Appeals against the decisions of TRAI lie before the Telecom Disputes Settlement and
Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
14%
1 and 2 only
35%
1 and 3 only
10%
2 and 3 only
41%
1,2 and 3
3) Answer: (B)
TRAI stands for Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. It is the regulatory body for
telecommunications in India. It was established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority
of India Act, 1997.
Its main responsibilities include:
●
Regulating tariffs to ensure fair pricing for telecom services.
●
Monitoring service quality to protect consumer interests.
●
Promoting competition among service providers to prevent monopolies and
encourage innovation. Essentially, TRAI ensures that telecom services are affordable,
reliable, and competitive. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is an independent statutory body that
functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications,
Government of India.
While it advises the government on policy matters, spectrum allocation, and technology
adoption, it does not directly implement government policies. This independence allows
TRAI to act impartially in regulating the sector and resolving disputes between operators.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Decisions made by TRAI can be challenged through appeals, which are heard by the
Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
TDSAT is a quasi-judicial body created to resolve disputes related to licensing, tariffs, and
service quality between telecom operators, service providers, and consumers. Any further
appeal from TDSAT’s orders can only be made to the Supreme Court, ensuring a clear legal
hierarchy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option B is the correct answer
TRAI stands for Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. It is the regulatory body for
telecommunications in India. It was established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority
of India Act, 1997.
Its main responsibilities include:
●
Regulating tariffs to ensure fair pricing for telecom services.
●
Monitoring service quality to protect consumer interests.
●
Promoting competition among service providers to prevent monopolies and
encourage innovation. Essentially, TRAI ensures that telecom services are affordable,
reliable, and competitive. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is an independent statutory body that
functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications,
Government of India.
While it advises the government on policy matters, spectrum allocation, and technology
adoption, it does not directly implement government policies. This independence allows
TRAI to act impartially in regulating the sector and resolving disputes between operators.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Decisions made by TRAI can be challenged through appeals, which are heard by the
Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
TDSAT is a quasi-judicial body created to resolve disputes related to licensing, tariffs, and
service quality between telecom operators, service providers, and consumers. Any further
appeal from TDSAT’s orders can only be made to the Supreme Court, ensuring a clear legal
hierarchy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option B is the correct answer
4) Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
1. It is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union.
2. Iraq and Iran are members of GCC.
3. The GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc.
1. It is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union.
2. Iraq and Iran are members of GCC.
3. The GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
20%
1 and 2 only
59%
1 and 3 only
10%
2 and 3 only
11%
1,2 and 3
4) Answer: (B)
●
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional intergovernmental political and
economic union established in 1981. It was created to foster coordination and
integration among its member states in the fields of economy, commerce, and
politics. Hence statement 1 is correct.
●
Neither Iraq nor Iran are members of the GCC. The council consists of six specific
Arab monarchies: Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates (UAE), Kuwait, Qatar,
Bahrain, and Oman. Iraq is a Gulf Arab nation but has been historically excluded
due to political differences, and Iran is a non-Arab state. Hence statement 2 is
Incorrect.
●
The GCC is India’s largest regional-bloc trading partner, a position it has
maintained through consistent growth. In 2017–18, bilateral trade stood at $104
billion (a 7% increase from the previous year), outperforming India's trade with both
the EU and ASEAN. Hence statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
●
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional intergovernmental political and
economic union established in 1981. It was created to foster coordination and
integration among its member states in the fields of economy, commerce, and
politics. Hence statement 1 is correct.
●
Neither Iraq nor Iran are members of the GCC. The council consists of six specific
Arab monarchies: Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates (UAE), Kuwait, Qatar,
Bahrain, and Oman. Iraq is a Gulf Arab nation but has been historically excluded
due to political differences, and Iran is a non-Arab state. Hence statement 2 is
Incorrect.
●
The GCC is India’s largest regional-bloc trading partner, a position it has
maintained through consistent growth. In 2017–18, bilateral trade stood at $104
billion (a 7% increase from the previous year), outperforming India's trade with both
the EU and ASEAN. Hence statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
1) 2) 3) Daily MCQ: 28.02.2026
Consider the following statements :
1. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is under a severe humanitarian crisis due
to ongoing civil war .
2. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is one of the world's leading producers of
copper.
3. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is bordered by Angola and Rwanda
Consider the following statements :
1. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is under a severe humanitarian crisis due
to ongoing civil war .
2. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is one of the world's leading producers of
copper.
3. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is bordered by Angola and Rwanda
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
1 and 2 only
10%
2 and 3 only
29%
1 and 3 only
49%
1,2 and 3