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2) Answer: (D)

When the Rajya Sabha was first constituted in 1952 as a permanent house with
six-year terms for members, a unique challenge arose: since all members started
simultaneously, there were no senior members to retire. To establish the staggered
retirement cycle, the President of India issued the Council of States (Term of
Office of Members) Order, 1952, introducing a lottery system.
In 1954, two years
after the first session, one-third of the members were chosen by lot to retire early,
serving only two years. In 1956, a second lottery determined which of the remaining
members would retire after four years. The final third completed their full six-year
term and retired in 1958, thereby fully establishing the rotation system. From that
point onward, every newly elected member could serve a full six-year term, while
ensuring that one-third of the house retired every two years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.

The election of Rajya Sabha members is conducted through Proportional
Representation (PR) using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system under an
open ballot.
In this system, the number of seats a political party obtains is roughly
proportional to the number of votes it receives from the elected members of the
State Legislative Assembly (MLAs)
; for instance, a party with 50% of the MLAs’
support would typically secure about 50% of the Rajya Sabha seats allocated to that
state. Under the STV system, each MLA ranks the candidates in order of
preference (1, 2, 3, etc.), and a candidate who achieves the required quota of
votes is elected
. Any surplus votes or votes for eliminated candidates are transferred
according to the preferences indicated, ensuring proportional representation. Voting
is conducted through an open ballot,
meaning that each MLA must show their
marked ballot to their party agent, which prevents cross-voting and maintains party
discipline, although independent MLAs are not required to show their vote to
anyone. Hence statement 2 is correct.

To be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha, a candidate must be a citizen of
India
, at least 30 years old, and registered as a voter in any parliamentary
constituency in India
, as specified under Article 84 of the Constitution. This
requirement was amended by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act,
2003
. Before this amendment, a candidate had to be an elector in the specific state
from which they were seeking election. The 2003 amendment allowed any person
registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India to contest from any
state. Unlike elections to the State Legislative Assemblies, a Rajya Sabha candidateOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
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does not need to be an elector in the state from which they are contesting, enabling
any eligible Indian citizen to stand for Rajya Sabha elections regardless of their
home state. Hence statement 3 is Correct
Therefore , option D is the correct
3) Consider the following statements:
1. In India, computer programs are legally protected as literary works.
2. In India, copyright protection for all types of works lasts for the author’s lifetime plus
60 years.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
48%
1 only
13%
2 only
20%
Both 1 and 2
19%
Neither 1 nor 2
3) Answer: (A)
Copyright is a form of intellectual property that grants creators exclusive legal rights over
their original works of authorship, protecting the expression of ideas rather than the ideas
themselves. In India, it is primarily governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 (with key
amendments, including in 2012), which automatically protects original literary, dramatic,
musical, and artistic works, as well as cinematograph films and sound recordings, as soon as
the work is fixed in a tangible medium such as writing, recording, or digital file—no formal
registration is required to establish basic protection, though voluntary registration with the
Copyright Office provides stronger evidentiary value in disputes.
Under the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, the definition of a "literary work" specifically
includes computer programs, tables, and compilations, including computer databases. This
means the actual source code and object code of a program are protected against unauthorized
copying, much like a novel or a poem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The "Lifetime + 60 years" rule applies to literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works.
However, it does not apply to "all types of works." Different categories have different
protection terms:

Cinematograph films and Sound recordings: 60 years from the beginning of the
calendar year following the year in which the work is published.

Photographs: Historically had a different term, but currently generally follow the
60-year rule from publication.

Anonymous/Pseudonymous works: 60 years from publication.

Government works and Public Undertakings: 60 years from publication. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
2. The share of the gender budget in the Union Budget increased in the most recent fiscal
year compared to the previous yea
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 only
48%
2 only
31%
Both 1 and 2
9%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Gender Budgeting is a spatial and fiscal tool used to ensure that the benefits of
development reach women as much as men. While the focus in India is heavily on women
due to existing socio-economic gaps, the theoretical framework involves analyzing the
impact of government expenditure on all genders to ensure equitable distribution. It is a
"gender-sensitive" lens applied to the entire budgetary process.

Gender Budgeting is not a separate or standalone budget.It is a fiscal tool or an
analytical exercise applied to the entire budget. Funds are not "exclusively"

earmarked in a separate pot; rather, existing departmental allocations are identified
and reported based on their benefit to women. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In the most recent fiscal cycles (specifically the 2025-26 and 2024-25 budgets), the
Gender Budget has shown a consistent upward trajectory both in absolute terms
and as a percentage of the total Union Budget.

For the 2024-25 (Revised Estimates) and 2025-26 (Budget Estimates), the
allocation crossed the landmark of ₹3 lakh crore for the first time.

The share of the Gender Budget as a percentage of the total Union Budget has
risen to approximately 6.5% - 6.8%, up from the historical average of roughly
5%. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
5) With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme, consider the following statements:
1. It aims at comprehensive development of villages along India’s international land
borders.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
62%
1 only
15%
2 only
18%
Both 1 and 2
6%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)

The Vibrant Villages Programme aims at comprehensive development of villages
along India’s international land borders. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Phase I (2023–26) covers selected villages along the northern border with China in
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Ladakh. It focuses
on infrastructure, road connectivity, telecom, housing, renewable energy, and
livelihood generation to prevent outmigration.

Phase II is envisaged to expand coverage to additional border villages along other
international borders of India, strengthening strategic security and inclusive
development in remote frontier areas.

The Vibrant Villages Programme is overseen and implemented by the Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA)
.

It coordinates with State Governments and other central ministries for infrastructure
and development works in border villages. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer
1) Daily MCQ: 26.02.2026
With reference to Exercise MILAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy
2. It strengthens India's position as a key player in Indo-Pacific region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
1 only
16%
2 only
75%
Both 1 and 2
2%
Neither 1 nor 2
1) Answer: (C)
Exercise MILAN is a multilateral (not bilateral) naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. It
began in 1995 with just four nations (Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) and has
grown exponentially. The most recent 13th edition, which concluded on February 25, 2026,
saw participation from over 70 friendly foreign nations, making it India's largest-ever
multinational naval engagement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
The exercise is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy. By hosting navies from across
the world in the Bay of Bengal, India reinforces its role as a "Net Security Provider" and a
"Preferred Security Partner." It aligns with the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the
Region) initiative and the MAHASAGAR vision, directly strengthening India's strategic
influence and leadership in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence , Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
2) Which of the following diseases can be prevented by the HPV (human papillomavirus)
vaccine?
(a) Breast Cancer
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Syphilis
2) Answer: (B)

Breast Cancer is a non-communicable disease primarily influenced by genetics and
lifestyle factors. It is not caused by a virus, and therefore, there is no vaccine
available
for its prevention. Hence, option A is incorrect.

Cervical cancer is the primary disease prevented by the HPV vaccine. The vaccine
works by stimulating the immune system to recognize and block the Human
Papillomavirus
, which is responsible for over 95% of cervical cancer cases
worldwide. By preventing the initial viral infection, the vaccine stops the long-term
cellular changes that lead to malignancy. Hence, option B is correct.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. It is prevented by separate vaccines, such as
the Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccines, not the HPV vaccine. Hence, option C is
incorrect.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria (Treponema pallidum).
Because it is bacterial rather than viral, it cannot be prevented by the HPV vaccine.
Hence, option D is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct an
3) Consider the following statements regarding El Niño:
1. El Niño is characterised by the weakening of trade winds over the equatorial Pacific
Ocean.
2. It generally strengthens the Indian southwest monsoon.
3. El Niño is an oceanic phenomenon whereas Southern oscillation is atmospheric
phenomenon.
Which of the statements given above are cor
Anonymous Quiz
58%
1 and 3 only
17%
2 and 3 only
12%
1 and 2 only
13%
1, 2 and 3
3) Answer: (A)
Phenomena of El-Nina

Trade winds blow from east to west across the equatorial Pacific.

They push warm surface water toward Indonesia & Australia.

Cold water rises near Peru (upwelling).
During El Niño–Southern Oscillation (El Niño phase)

Trade winds weaken (sometimes even reverse).

Warm water shifts eastward toward the central & eastern Pacific.

Upwelling near Peru reduces.

The entire ocean-atmosphere balance changes.
So weakening of trade winds is a core feature of El Niño. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

El Niño does not strengthen the Indian southwest monsoon.

Instead, it generally weakens it. When warm water shifts toward the eastern Pacific,
the region of rising air (convection) also shifts eastward. As a result, subsidence
(sinking air) increases over the Indian region, reducing cloud formation and rainfall.

This often leads to below-normal monsoon rainfall and sometimes drought conditions
in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

El Niño is the oceanic phenomenon marked by abnormal warming of the central and
eastern equatorial Pacific due to weakening trade winds.

Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric phenomenon involving fluctuations in air
pressure between Tahiti and Darwin (measured by SOI).

Together, they form the coupled ocean–atmosphere system called El Niño–Southern
Oscillation (ENSO)
.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
4) Consider the following statements
Statement I: Large Language Models are widely used for understanding and generating
human language.
Statement II: LLMs are trained using large amounts of text data.
Statement III: LLMs can consume a significant amount of electricity during its usage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
4) Answer: (B)
A Large Language Model (LLM) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) model that is
trained to understand and generate human language.OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
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LLMs like GPT, BERT, or LLaMA are trained on massive text datasets consisting of
books, articles, and web content. Hence statement II is correct.
This training allows the model to learn grammar, context, semantics, and patterns of
human language
, which directly explains why LLMs can understand and generate text.
Therefore, Statement II explains Statement I.
Training large models requires huge computational resources (GPUs/TPUs) and can
consume tens to hundreds of megawatt-hours of electricity. While this is true, it does not
explain why LLMs can generate human-like text
; it only describes a technical or
resource-related fact
about LLMs. Hence statement 3 is correct, and only one of them
explains statement 1.
Therefore, option B is the correct answ
5) Consider the following statements about microplastic pollution:
1. Microplastics act like chemical sponges, absorbing toxic pollutants such as heavy
metals from water.
2. Abandoned fishing gear and river discharge are major sources of microplastics along
India’s coasts.
3. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, require QR/barcodes for tracking
to improve accountability and reduce microplastic pollution.