4) Answer: (D)
A Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is a specialized processor designed to render images, videos, and
animations. It uses parallel processing with thousands of small cores to perform many calculations
simultaneously. GPUs are essential for gaming, video editing, scientific computing, and Artificial
Intelligence. They can be integrated into the CPU or exist as dedicated graphics cards made by
companies like NVIDIA and AMD.
●
GPUs are designed to perform thousands of calculations simultaneously (parallel processing).
Deep learning models involve massive matrix multiplications and tensor operations. GPUs
significantly reduce training time compared to CPUs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Cryptocurrency mining requires solving complex cryptographic hash functions repeatedly.
○
Bitcoin mining initially used GPUs before shifting largely to ASICs.
○
Ethereum heavily relied on GPU mining before transitioning to Proof of Stake (2022).
GPUs were preferred because of their ability to handle repetitive parallel computations efficiently.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Weather forecasting involves solving complex numerical models based on fluid dynamics and
atmospheric physics. These require processing vast datasets and performing parallel
computations, ideal for GPUs. Many supercomputing centers integrate GPUs for climate modeling
and simulation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Modern video games such as Grand Theft Auto V rely heavily on GPUs for:
●
Real-time rendering
●
Ray tracing
●
High-resolution textures
A Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is a specialized processor designed to render images, videos, and
animations. It uses parallel processing with thousands of small cores to perform many calculations
simultaneously. GPUs are essential for gaming, video editing, scientific computing, and Artificial
Intelligence. They can be integrated into the CPU or exist as dedicated graphics cards made by
companies like NVIDIA and AMD.
●
GPUs are designed to perform thousands of calculations simultaneously (parallel processing).
Deep learning models involve massive matrix multiplications and tensor operations. GPUs
significantly reduce training time compared to CPUs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Cryptocurrency mining requires solving complex cryptographic hash functions repeatedly.
○
Bitcoin mining initially used GPUs before shifting largely to ASICs.
○
Ethereum heavily relied on GPU mining before transitioning to Proof of Stake (2022).
GPUs were preferred because of their ability to handle repetitive parallel computations efficiently.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Weather forecasting involves solving complex numerical models based on fluid dynamics and
atmospheric physics. These require processing vast datasets and performing parallel
computations, ideal for GPUs. Many supercomputing centers integrate GPUs for climate modeling
and simulation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Modern video games such as Grand Theft Auto V rely heavily on GPUs for:
●
Real-time rendering
●
Ray tracing
●
High-resolution textures
1) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in
India:
1. CRPF is an internal security force that comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) combats insurgency and is a
special unit of CRPF.
3. It performs functions including disaster management and election duties.
India:
1. CRPF is an internal security force that comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) combats insurgency and is a
special unit of CRPF.
3. It performs functions including disaster management and election duties.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 only
5%
2 only
18%
2 and 3 only
70%
1,2 and 3
Answer: (D)
●
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is India’s largest Central Armed Police
Force (CAPF). It functions under the administrative and operational control of the
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is the primary force for maintaining internal
security, countering insurgency, and assisting state police in law and order. Hence
statement 1 is correct .
●
The Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) is a specialized unit of the
CRPF. It was established in 2008 specifically to tackle Left-Wing Extremism
(Naxalism) using guerrilla and jungle warfare tactics. The government authorized the
CRPF to raise ten unattached CoBRA battalions between 2008 and 2011.Hence
statement 2 is correct .
●
The CRPF performs a wide range of functions including:
Election Duties: It serves as the nodal agency for coordinating security and
large-scale arrangements during Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.
Disaster Management: It executes rescue and relief operations during natural
calamities.
Operational Roles: It is responsible for Crowd and Riot Control, Counter
Militancy/Insurgency, Dealing with Left-Wing Extremism, and VIP Protection.
●
Security & Defense: It handles the safeguarding of vital installations, combatting
aggression during wartime, and participating in UN Peacekeeping Missions.Hence
statement 3 is correct .
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
●
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is India’s largest Central Armed Police
Force (CAPF). It functions under the administrative and operational control of the
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is the primary force for maintaining internal
security, countering insurgency, and assisting state police in law and order. Hence
statement 1 is correct .
●
The Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) is a specialized unit of the
CRPF. It was established in 2008 specifically to tackle Left-Wing Extremism
(Naxalism) using guerrilla and jungle warfare tactics. The government authorized the
CRPF to raise ten unattached CoBRA battalions between 2008 and 2011.Hence
statement 2 is correct .
●
The CRPF performs a wide range of functions including:
Election Duties: It serves as the nodal agency for coordinating security and
large-scale arrangements during Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.
Disaster Management: It executes rescue and relief operations during natural
calamities.
Operational Roles: It is responsible for Crowd and Riot Control, Counter
Militancy/Insurgency, Dealing with Left-Wing Extremism, and VIP Protection.
●
Security & Defense: It handles the safeguarding of vital installations, combatting
aggression during wartime, and participating in UN Peacekeeping Missions.Hence
statement 3 is correct .
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
2) With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statement.
1. The one-third retirement cycle was first established in 1952 through a lottery system to
determine which members would serve two- or four-year terms.
2. The election is conducted through the system of Proportional Representation under an
open ballot system.
3. A candidate must be registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency in India
1. The one-third retirement cycle was first established in 1952 through a lottery system to
determine which members would serve two- or four-year terms.
2. The election is conducted through the system of Proportional Representation under an
open ballot system.
3. A candidate must be registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 and 2 only
20%
1 and 3 only
22%
2 and 3 only
52%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
●
When the Rajya Sabha was first constituted in 1952 as a permanent house with
six-year terms for members, a unique challenge arose: since all members started
simultaneously, there were no senior members to retire. To establish the staggered
retirement cycle, the President of India issued the Council of States (Term of
Office of Members) Order, 1952, introducing a lottery system. In 1954, two years
after the first session, one-third of the members were chosen by lot to retire early,
serving only two years. In 1956, a second lottery determined which of the remaining
members would retire after four years. The final third completed their full six-year
term and retired in 1958, thereby fully establishing the rotation system. From that
point onward, every newly elected member could serve a full six-year term, while
ensuring that one-third of the house retired every two years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
●
The election of Rajya Sabha members is conducted through Proportional
Representation (PR) using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system under an
open ballot. In this system, the number of seats a political party obtains is roughly
proportional to the number of votes it receives from the elected members of the
State Legislative Assembly (MLAs); for instance, a party with 50% of the MLAs’
support would typically secure about 50% of the Rajya Sabha seats allocated to that
state. Under the STV system, each MLA ranks the candidates in order of
preference (1, 2, 3, etc.), and a candidate who achieves the required quota of
votes is elected. Any surplus votes or votes for eliminated candidates are transferred
according to the preferences indicated, ensuring proportional representation. Voting
is conducted through an open ballot, meaning that each MLA must show their
marked ballot to their party agent, which prevents cross-voting and maintains party
discipline, although independent MLAs are not required to show their vote to
anyone. Hence statement 2 is correct.
●
To be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha, a candidate must be a citizen of
India, at least 30 years old, and registered as a voter in any parliamentary
constituency in India, as specified under Article 84 of the Constitution. This
requirement was amended by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act,
2003. Before this amendment, a candidate had to be an elector in the specific state
from which they were seeking election. The 2003 amendment allowed any person
registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India to contest from any
state. Unlike elections to the State Legislative Assemblies, a Rajya Sabha candidateOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
●
does not need to be an elector in the state from which they are contesting, enabling
any eligible Indian citizen to stand for Rajya Sabha elections regardless of their
home state. Hence statement 3 is Correct
Therefore , option D is the correct
●
When the Rajya Sabha was first constituted in 1952 as a permanent house with
six-year terms for members, a unique challenge arose: since all members started
simultaneously, there were no senior members to retire. To establish the staggered
retirement cycle, the President of India issued the Council of States (Term of
Office of Members) Order, 1952, introducing a lottery system. In 1954, two years
after the first session, one-third of the members were chosen by lot to retire early,
serving only two years. In 1956, a second lottery determined which of the remaining
members would retire after four years. The final third completed their full six-year
term and retired in 1958, thereby fully establishing the rotation system. From that
point onward, every newly elected member could serve a full six-year term, while
ensuring that one-third of the house retired every two years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
●
The election of Rajya Sabha members is conducted through Proportional
Representation (PR) using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system under an
open ballot. In this system, the number of seats a political party obtains is roughly
proportional to the number of votes it receives from the elected members of the
State Legislative Assembly (MLAs); for instance, a party with 50% of the MLAs’
support would typically secure about 50% of the Rajya Sabha seats allocated to that
state. Under the STV system, each MLA ranks the candidates in order of
preference (1, 2, 3, etc.), and a candidate who achieves the required quota of
votes is elected. Any surplus votes or votes for eliminated candidates are transferred
according to the preferences indicated, ensuring proportional representation. Voting
is conducted through an open ballot, meaning that each MLA must show their
marked ballot to their party agent, which prevents cross-voting and maintains party
discipline, although independent MLAs are not required to show their vote to
anyone. Hence statement 2 is correct.
●
To be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha, a candidate must be a citizen of
India, at least 30 years old, and registered as a voter in any parliamentary
constituency in India, as specified under Article 84 of the Constitution. This
requirement was amended by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act,
2003. Before this amendment, a candidate had to be an elector in the specific state
from which they were seeking election. The 2003 amendment allowed any person
registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India to contest from any
state. Unlike elections to the State Legislative Assemblies, a Rajya Sabha candidateOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
●
does not need to be an elector in the state from which they are contesting, enabling
any eligible Indian citizen to stand for Rajya Sabha elections regardless of their
home state. Hence statement 3 is Correct
Therefore , option D is the correct
3) Consider the following statements:
1. In India, computer programs are legally protected as literary works.
2. In India, copyright protection for all types of works lasts for the author’s lifetime plus
60 years.
1. In India, computer programs are legally protected as literary works.
2. In India, copyright protection for all types of works lasts for the author’s lifetime plus
60 years.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
48%
1 only
13%
2 only
20%
Both 1 and 2
19%
Neither 1 nor 2
3) Answer: (A)
Copyright is a form of intellectual property that grants creators exclusive legal rights over
their original works of authorship, protecting the expression of ideas rather than the ideas
themselves. In India, it is primarily governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 (with key
amendments, including in 2012), which automatically protects original literary, dramatic,
musical, and artistic works, as well as cinematograph films and sound recordings, as soon as
the work is fixed in a tangible medium such as writing, recording, or digital file—no formal
registration is required to establish basic protection, though voluntary registration with the
Copyright Office provides stronger evidentiary value in disputes.
Under the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, the definition of a "literary work" specifically
includes computer programs, tables, and compilations, including computer databases. This
means the actual source code and object code of a program are protected against unauthorized
copying, much like a novel or a poem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The "Lifetime + 60 years" rule applies to literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works.
However, it does not apply to "all types of works." Different categories have different
protection terms:
●
Cinematograph films and Sound recordings: 60 years from the beginning of the
calendar year following the year in which the work is published.
●
Photographs: Historically had a different term, but currently generally follow the
60-year rule from publication.
●
Anonymous/Pseudonymous works: 60 years from publication.
●
Government works and Public Undertakings: 60 years from publication. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
Copyright is a form of intellectual property that grants creators exclusive legal rights over
their original works of authorship, protecting the expression of ideas rather than the ideas
themselves. In India, it is primarily governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 (with key
amendments, including in 2012), which automatically protects original literary, dramatic,
musical, and artistic works, as well as cinematograph films and sound recordings, as soon as
the work is fixed in a tangible medium such as writing, recording, or digital file—no formal
registration is required to establish basic protection, though voluntary registration with the
Copyright Office provides stronger evidentiary value in disputes.
Under the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, the definition of a "literary work" specifically
includes computer programs, tables, and compilations, including computer databases. This
means the actual source code and object code of a program are protected against unauthorized
copying, much like a novel or a poem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The "Lifetime + 60 years" rule applies to literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works.
However, it does not apply to "all types of works." Different categories have different
protection terms:
●
Cinematograph films and Sound recordings: 60 years from the beginning of the
calendar year following the year in which the work is published.
●
Photographs: Historically had a different term, but currently generally follow the
60-year rule from publication.
●
Anonymous/Pseudonymous works: 60 years from publication.
●
Government works and Public Undertakings: 60 years from publication. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
2. The share of the gender budget in the Union Budget increased in the most recent fiscal
year compared to the previous yea
year compared to the previous yea
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
1 only
48%
2 only
31%
Both 1 and 2
9%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Gender Budgeting is a spatial and fiscal tool used to ensure that the benefits of
development reach women as much as men. While the focus in India is heavily on women
due to existing socio-economic gaps, the theoretical framework involves analyzing the
impact of government expenditure on all genders to ensure equitable distribution. It is a
"gender-sensitive" lens applied to the entire budgetary process.
●
Gender Budgeting is not a separate or standalone budget.It is a fiscal tool or an
analytical exercise applied to the entire budget. Funds are not "exclusively"
●
earmarked in a separate pot; rather, existing departmental allocations are identified
and reported based on their benefit to women. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In the most recent fiscal cycles (specifically the 2025-26 and 2024-25 budgets), the
Gender Budget has shown a consistent upward trajectory both in absolute terms
and as a percentage of the total Union Budget.
●
For the 2024-25 (Revised Estimates) and 2025-26 (Budget Estimates), the
allocation crossed the landmark of ₹3 lakh crore for the first time.
●
The share of the Gender Budget as a percentage of the total Union Budget has
risen to approximately 6.5% - 6.8%, up from the historical average of roughly
5%. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Gender Budgeting is a spatial and fiscal tool used to ensure that the benefits of
development reach women as much as men. While the focus in India is heavily on women
due to existing socio-economic gaps, the theoretical framework involves analyzing the
impact of government expenditure on all genders to ensure equitable distribution. It is a
"gender-sensitive" lens applied to the entire budgetary process.
●
Gender Budgeting is not a separate or standalone budget.It is a fiscal tool or an
analytical exercise applied to the entire budget. Funds are not "exclusively"
●
earmarked in a separate pot; rather, existing departmental allocations are identified
and reported based on their benefit to women. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In the most recent fiscal cycles (specifically the 2025-26 and 2024-25 budgets), the
Gender Budget has shown a consistent upward trajectory both in absolute terms
and as a percentage of the total Union Budget.
●
For the 2024-25 (Revised Estimates) and 2025-26 (Budget Estimates), the
allocation crossed the landmark of ₹3 lakh crore for the first time.
●
The share of the Gender Budget as a percentage of the total Union Budget has
risen to approximately 6.5% - 6.8%, up from the historical average of roughly
5%. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
5) With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme, consider the following statements:
1. It aims at comprehensive development of villages along India’s international land
borders.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
1. It aims at comprehensive development of villages along India’s international land
borders.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
62%
1 only
15%
2 only
18%
Both 1 and 2
6%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)
●
The Vibrant Villages Programme aims at comprehensive development of villages
along India’s international land borders. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Phase I (2023–26) covers selected villages along the northern border with China in
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Ladakh. It focuses
on infrastructure, road connectivity, telecom, housing, renewable energy, and
livelihood generation to prevent outmigration.
●
Phase II is envisaged to expand coverage to additional border villages along other
international borders of India, strengthening strategic security and inclusive
development in remote frontier areas.
●
The Vibrant Villages Programme is overseen and implemented by the Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA).
●
It coordinates with State Governments and other central ministries for infrastructure
and development works in border villages. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer
●
The Vibrant Villages Programme aims at comprehensive development of villages
along India’s international land borders. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Phase I (2023–26) covers selected villages along the northern border with China in
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Ladakh. It focuses
on infrastructure, road connectivity, telecom, housing, renewable energy, and
livelihood generation to prevent outmigration.
●
Phase II is envisaged to expand coverage to additional border villages along other
international borders of India, strengthening strategic security and inclusive
development in remote frontier areas.
●
The Vibrant Villages Programme is overseen and implemented by the Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA).
●
It coordinates with State Governments and other central ministries for infrastructure
and development works in border villages. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer
1) Daily MCQ: 26.02.2026
With reference to Exercise MILAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy
2. It strengthens India's position as a key player in Indo-Pacific region
With reference to Exercise MILAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy
2. It strengthens India's position as a key player in Indo-Pacific region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
1 only
16%
2 only
75%
Both 1 and 2
2%
Neither 1 nor 2
1) Answer: (C)
Exercise MILAN is a multilateral (not bilateral) naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. It
began in 1995 with just four nations (Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) and has
grown exponentially. The most recent 13th edition, which concluded on February 25, 2026,
saw participation from over 70 friendly foreign nations, making it India's largest-ever
multinational naval engagement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
The exercise is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy. By hosting navies from across
the world in the Bay of Bengal, India reinforces its role as a "Net Security Provider" and a
"Preferred Security Partner." It aligns with the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the
Region) initiative and the MAHASAGAR vision, directly strengthening India's strategic
influence and leadership in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence , Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Exercise MILAN is a multilateral (not bilateral) naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. It
began in 1995 with just four nations (Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) and has
grown exponentially. The most recent 13th edition, which concluded on February 25, 2026,
saw participation from over 70 friendly foreign nations, making it India's largest-ever
multinational naval engagement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
The exercise is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy. By hosting navies from across
the world in the Bay of Bengal, India reinforces its role as a "Net Security Provider" and a
"Preferred Security Partner." It aligns with the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the
Region) initiative and the MAHASAGAR vision, directly strengthening India's strategic
influence and leadership in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence , Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
2) Which of the following diseases can be prevented by the HPV (human papillomavirus)
vaccine?
(a) Breast Cancer
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Syphilis
vaccine?
(a) Breast Cancer
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Syphilis
2) Answer: (B)
●
Breast Cancer is a non-communicable disease primarily influenced by genetics and
lifestyle factors. It is not caused by a virus, and therefore, there is no vaccine
available for its prevention. Hence, option A is incorrect.
●
Cervical cancer is the primary disease prevented by the HPV vaccine. The vaccine
works by stimulating the immune system to recognize and block the Human
Papillomavirus, which is responsible for over 95% of cervical cancer cases
worldwide. By preventing the initial viral infection, the vaccine stops the long-term
cellular changes that lead to malignancy. Hence, option B is correct.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. It is prevented by separate vaccines, such as
the Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccines, not the HPV vaccine. Hence, option C is
incorrect.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria (Treponema pallidum).
Because it is bacterial rather than viral, it cannot be prevented by the HPV vaccine.
Hence, option D is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct an
●
Breast Cancer is a non-communicable disease primarily influenced by genetics and
lifestyle factors. It is not caused by a virus, and therefore, there is no vaccine
available for its prevention. Hence, option A is incorrect.
●
Cervical cancer is the primary disease prevented by the HPV vaccine. The vaccine
works by stimulating the immune system to recognize and block the Human
Papillomavirus, which is responsible for over 95% of cervical cancer cases
worldwide. By preventing the initial viral infection, the vaccine stops the long-term
cellular changes that lead to malignancy. Hence, option B is correct.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. It is prevented by separate vaccines, such as
the Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccines, not the HPV vaccine. Hence, option C is
incorrect.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria (Treponema pallidum).
Because it is bacterial rather than viral, it cannot be prevented by the HPV vaccine.
Hence, option D is incorrect.
Therefore, option B is the correct an