5) Answer: (D)
●
Genome editing (specifically CRISPR-Cas9) is considered a "horizontal" technology because its
ability to precisely rewrite DNA allows it to be applied across almost every field of biological
science.
●
Applications
●
Biofortification of Food: Unlike traditional breeding, genome editing can precisely
knock out genes that inhibit nutrient absorption or "turn up" genes that produce
vitamins.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
○
Example: High-GABA tomatoes in Japan or browning-resistant bananas that
retain nutrients longer.
●
Climate-Resilient Crops: Scientists edit genes to help plants withstand abiotic stresses
like salinity, drought, and extreme heat.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○
Example: In India, researchers are working on Rice (DRR 100), which is edited to
maintain yields even under water-stressed conditions.
●
Treatment of Neurological Disorders: This is a frontier in medicine. Genome editing is
being researched to "silence" the toxic proteins produced in diseases like Huntington’s
Disease or to edit the cells involved in Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.Hence, statement
3 is correct.
●
Personalized Medicine: Genome editing allows for therapies tailored to a patient's
specific genetic makeup.Hence, statement 4 is correct.
○
Example: CAR-T cell therapy for cancer, where a patient’s own immune cells are
edited to better recognize and kill their specific type of cancer cells.
●
Production of Biofuels: Editing the genomes of algae or bacteria can make them
significantly more efficient at breaking down cellulose or producing high quantities of
lipids (oils) that can be converted into fuel.Hence, statement 5 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answe

With reference to the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946, consider the following statements:
1. The cause of the uprising was the protest against the poor food quality and racial discrimination
by British officers.
2. One of the key demands is the release of INA prisoners.
3. Mahatma Gandhi supported the mutiny as a continuation of the Quit India sentiment.

1) Answer: (C)
●
The Royal Indian Navy Revolt (1946), also known as the Naval Mutiny, was a significant event in
India’s freedom struggle that reflected growing dissatisfaction with British colonial rule and
widespread social, political, and economic inequalities. On 18 February 1946, around 1,100 sailors
of HMIS Talwar in Bombay went on strike against harsh treatment and poor food, raising
nationalist slogans such as “Jai Hind,
” “Release INA Prisoners,
” and “Quit India.
” The protest
symbolised unity as sailors hoisted the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist
Party, and the movement quickly spread to Calcutta, Madras, Karachi, and Vizag.Though largely
leaderless and lacking support from major political parties, the revolt marked a turning point in
the relationship between the British Raj and the Indian armed forces and symbolised India’s
strong desire for independence, contributing to the British decision to withdraw in 1947.
●
The 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny began on 18 February 1946 at HMIS Talwar in
Bombay as a strike by naval ratings protesting against poor food quality, inadequate pay,
harsh living conditions, and racial discrimination by British officers. What started as a “food
boycott” soon transformed into a broader, though short-lived, revolt against colonial rule,
spreading to other naval establishments. The uprising was eventually called off after mediation by
national leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, but it strongly
indicated the weakening of British authority and signalled the approaching end of British rule in
India. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
●
The central demand being the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners of Netaji Subhas
Chandra Bose. What started as a service-related protest quickly turned into a political revolt
against British rule, reflecting the growing nationalist spirit. The key demands included theOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
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immediate release of INA and other political prisoners, improvement in food, pay, and
accommodation on par with the Royal Navy, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia and the
Middle East, and strict action against British officers accused of racial abuse and ill-treatment of
Indian ratings. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
Mahatma Gandhi did not support the 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny and strongly
condemned it, criticizing its violent, leaderless, and uncoordinated character. Although he
sympathized with the genuine grievances of the sailors, he believed that mutiny was not the right
method to achieve independence and warned that such actions could lead to chaos and
indiscipline. Along with him, leaders like Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru urged
the naval ratings to surrender and emphasized negotiation to prevent further bloodshed. The
revolt, which spread across Bombay, Karachi, and Calcutta in February 1946, posed a serious
challenge to British authority. In contrast, the Communist Party of India and leaders like Aruna
Asaf Ali supported the mutineers. Despite its suppression, the uprising demonstrated to the
British that they could no longer fully rely on the loyalty of the Indian armed forces to sustain
colonial rule. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer

2) Match the following
Initiative Objective
1. SAHI Privacy preserving Health AI evaluation platform.
2. BODH A set of guidelines for using AI in healthcare
across India.
3. EKAM AI Indigenous AI platform for secure military
document management.
4. PRAKSHEPAN An AI-driven climatology and disaster prediction
system providing early warnings for landslides,
floods and avalanches.

Answer: (C)
●
Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India (SAHI) is a national guidance
framework to enable the safe, ethical, evidence-based, and inclusive adoption of Artificial
Intelligence across India’s healthcare system. It aims to provide strategic direction on
governance, data stewardship, validation, deployment, and monitoring of AI solutions, while
supporting States and institutions in responsible adoption aligned with public health
priorities.Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.
●
Benchmarking Open Data Platform for Health AI (BODH) is developed by the Indian Institute
of Technology Kanpur in collaboration with the National Health Authority, is a privacy-preserving
benchmarking platform that enables rigorous evaluation of AI models using diverse, real-world
health data without sharing underlying datasets. As a digital public good under the Ayushman
Bharat Digital Mission, it is designed to strengthen trust, transparency, and quality assurance in
Health AI deployment.Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.
●
Ekam AI – India’s Secure AI Platform : The Indian Army showcased Ekam AI, a fully
indigenous and secure artificial intelligence platform designed for sensitive environments. It
enables users to analyse information, manage documents, and support decision-making without
dependence on foreign software or external cloud systems. Built for ease of use, it allows personnel
at different levels to leverage AI-enabled support without requiring specialised technical expertise.
By ensuring complete data security and sovereignty, Ekam AI marks a significant step towards
building trusted national digital systems. Hence statement 3 is correct .
●
Prakshepan is a cutting edge Military Climatology Application for the Indian Army developed
in-house by the Directorate General of Information Systems. It has been powered by scientific
& technical collaboration from several ministries with agencies like India Meteorological
Department, National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting, Central Water Commission,
North East Space Application Centre, Geological Survey of India and Defence Geospatial Research
Organisation.It has three prediction modules, viz Landslide Prediction, Flood Prediction and
Avalanche Prediction. Beyond military applications, it will also be able to provide early warnings to
civil administration in remote areas, contributing to national disaster resilience and capacity

Consider the following areas of cooperation between India and France:
1. Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project
2. Scorpene-class submarines under Project 75
3. Rafale fighter aircraft.
4. SCALP cruise missile integration

3) Answer: (D)
●
India and France have been engaged in long‑term civil nuclear cooperation for the proposed
Jaitapur nuclear plant in Maharashtra. A memorandum of understanding was first signed with
French firm Areva and later updated with the French company Électricité de France (EDF) and
NPCIL (Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd) to progress the project with French technology
(European Pressurized Reactors).
●
The Project 75 Scorpene submarines have been built in India (Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
Limited) with technology transfer and cooperation from France’s Naval Group under a defence
contract.
●
India procured Dassault Rafale multirole fighter aircraft from France under
government‑to‑government agreements. The Indian Navy also signed a deal to buy Rafale‑M
variants from France.
●
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) of India approved the procurement of SCALP
long‑range cruise missiles designed for integration with Rafale aircraft demonstrating
collaboration with France for advanced weapons systems. Hence All four areas reflect
India-France bilateral collaboration between India and France.

4) With reference to the applications of Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), consider the following
statements:
1. Used for training deep learning models due to their parallel processing capability.
2. Cryptocurrency mining such as Bitcoin and Ethereum.
3. Assists large-scale weather forecasting simulations.
4. Renders high-quality graphics in video games.

4) Answer: (D)
A Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is a specialized processor designed to render images, videos, and
animations. It uses parallel processing with thousands of small cores to perform many calculations
simultaneously. GPUs are essential for gaming, video editing, scientific computing, and Artificial
Intelligence. They can be integrated into the CPU or exist as dedicated graphics cards made by
companies like NVIDIA and AMD.
●
GPUs are designed to perform thousands of calculations simultaneously (parallel processing).
Deep learning models involve massive matrix multiplications and tensor operations. GPUs
significantly reduce training time compared to CPUs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Cryptocurrency mining requires solving complex cryptographic hash functions repeatedly.
○
Bitcoin mining initially used GPUs before shifting largely to ASICs.
○
Ethereum heavily relied on GPU mining before transitioning to Proof of Stake (2022).
GPUs were preferred because of their ability to handle repetitive parallel computations efficiently.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Weather forecasting involves solving complex numerical models based on fluid dynamics and
atmospheric physics. These require processing vast datasets and performing parallel
computations, ideal for GPUs. Many supercomputing centers integrate GPUs for climate modeling
and simulation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Modern video games such as Grand Theft Auto V rely heavily on GPUs for:
●
Real-time rendering
●
Ray tracing
●
High-resolution textures

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in
India:
1. CRPF is an internal security force that comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) combats insurgency and is a
special unit of CRPF.
3. It performs functions including disaster management and election duties.

Answer: (D)
●
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is India’s largest Central Armed Police
Force (CAPF). It functions under the administrative and operational control of the
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is the primary force for maintaining internal
security, countering insurgency, and assisting state police in law and order. Hence
statement 1 is correct .
●
The Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) is a specialized unit of the
CRPF. It was established in 2008 specifically to tackle Left-Wing Extremism
(Naxalism) using guerrilla and jungle warfare tactics. The government authorized the
CRPF to raise ten unattached CoBRA battalions between 2008 and 2011.Hence
statement 2 is correct .
●
The CRPF performs a wide range of functions including:
Election Duties: It serves as the nodal agency for coordinating security and
large-scale arrangements during Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.
Disaster Management: It executes rescue and relief operations during natural
calamities.
Operational Roles: It is responsible for Crowd and Riot Control, Counter
Militancy/Insurgency, Dealing with Left-Wing Extremism, and VIP Protection.
●
Security & Defense: It handles the safeguarding of vital installations, combatting
aggression during wartime, and participating in UN Peacekeeping Missions.Hence
statement 3 is correct .
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

2) With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statement.
1. The one-third retirement cycle was first established in 1952 through a lottery system to
determine which members would serve two- or four-year terms.
2. The election is conducted through the system of Proportional Representation under an
open ballot system.
3. A candidate must be registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency in India

2) Answer: (D)
●
When the Rajya Sabha was first constituted in 1952 as a permanent house with
six-year terms for members, a unique challenge arose: since all members started
simultaneously, there were no senior members to retire. To establish the staggered
retirement cycle, the President of India issued the Council of States (Term of
Office of Members) Order, 1952, introducing a lottery system. In 1954, two years
after the first session, one-third of the members were chosen by lot to retire early,
serving only two years. In 1956, a second lottery determined which of the remaining
members would retire after four years. The final third completed their full six-year
term and retired in 1958, thereby fully establishing the rotation system. From that
point onward, every newly elected member could serve a full six-year term, while
ensuring that one-third of the house retired every two years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
●
The election of Rajya Sabha members is conducted through Proportional
Representation (PR) using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system under an
open ballot. In this system, the number of seats a political party obtains is roughly
proportional to the number of votes it receives from the elected members of the
State Legislative Assembly (MLAs); for instance, a party with 50% of the MLAs’
support would typically secure about 50% of the Rajya Sabha seats allocated to that
state. Under the STV system, each MLA ranks the candidates in order of
preference (1, 2, 3, etc.), and a candidate who achieves the required quota of
votes is elected. Any surplus votes or votes for eliminated candidates are transferred
according to the preferences indicated, ensuring proportional representation. Voting
is conducted through an open ballot, meaning that each MLA must show their
marked ballot to their party agent, which prevents cross-voting and maintains party
discipline, although independent MLAs are not required to show their vote to
anyone. Hence statement 2 is correct.
●
To be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha, a candidate must be a citizen of
India, at least 30 years old, and registered as a voter in any parliamentary
constituency in India, as specified under Article 84 of the Constitution. This
requirement was amended by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act,
2003. Before this amendment, a candidate had to be an elector in the specific state
from which they were seeking election. The 2003 amendment allowed any person
registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India to contest from any
state. Unlike elections to the State Legislative Assemblies, a Rajya Sabha candidateOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
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does not need to be an elector in the state from which they are contesting, enabling
any eligible Indian citizen to stand for Rajya Sabha elections regardless of their
home state. Hence statement 3 is Correct
Therefore , option D is the correct

3) Consider the following statements:
1. In India, computer programs are legally protected as literary works.
2. In India, copyright protection for all types of works lasts for the author’s lifetime plus
60 years.