5) With reference to the New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1 and 2 only
31%
2 and 3 only
20%
1 and 3 only
45%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
1) Which among the following are reasons for hindering growth of corporate bond market development?
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration
Select the correct code given below:
Anonymous Quiz
3%
Only one
18%
Only two
30%
Only three
49%
Only four
Answer: (D)
The corporate bond market is the segment of the debt (or fixed-income) market where corporations
(private and public companies) issue bonds to raise long-term capital from investors. These bonds are
essentially debt securities: when you buy a corporate bond, you are lending money to the issuing
company in exchange for:
●
Regular interest payments (called coupons, usually fixed or floating rates).
●
Repayment of the principal (face value) at maturity (end of the bond term, which can range
from a few years to decades).
Reasons hindering the growth of the corporate bond market in India
●
Crowding out by Government Borrowing: High government borrowing (due to fiscal deficits)
crowds out corporate issuances by absorbing liquidity, dominating investor interest (safer
G-Secs), and limiting benchmark development for corporate bonds. This is frequently cited in
analyses (e.g., BIS papers, NITI Aayog reports, and Economic Survey discussions on debt
dynamics). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Stringent regulatory norms: Stringent/overly restrictive regulatory norms (e.g., investment
mandates for institutions limiting exposure to lower-rated bonds, overlapping regulations from
SEBI/RBI/MCA, high disclosure requirements, and procedural delays) hinder participation,
liquidity, and broader issuer access. Recent reforms aim to ease some norms (e.g., reduced
minimum ticket sizes for retail), but norms are generally seen as tight/constraining rather than
relaxed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
High transaction cost: High transaction costs (including stamp duties, compliance fees,
issuance costs, and secondary market frictions) deter issuers (especially smaller ones) and
investors, reduce attractiveness compared to bank loans, and contribute to low liquidity and
private placement dominance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Low retail investor penetration: Retail participation remains very low (<5% typically) due to
high entry barriers (previously large minimum lots, though recently reduced), complexity,
perceived risks, information asymmetry, low awareness, and unfavorable tax treatment. This
narrows the investor base, limits diversification, and hampers secondary market depth. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
The corporate bond market is the segment of the debt (or fixed-income) market where corporations
(private and public companies) issue bonds to raise long-term capital from investors. These bonds are
essentially debt securities: when you buy a corporate bond, you are lending money to the issuing
company in exchange for:
●
Regular interest payments (called coupons, usually fixed or floating rates).
●
Repayment of the principal (face value) at maturity (end of the bond term, which can range
from a few years to decades).
Reasons hindering the growth of the corporate bond market in India
●
Crowding out by Government Borrowing: High government borrowing (due to fiscal deficits)
crowds out corporate issuances by absorbing liquidity, dominating investor interest (safer
G-Secs), and limiting benchmark development for corporate bonds. This is frequently cited in
analyses (e.g., BIS papers, NITI Aayog reports, and Economic Survey discussions on debt
dynamics). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Stringent regulatory norms: Stringent/overly restrictive regulatory norms (e.g., investment
mandates for institutions limiting exposure to lower-rated bonds, overlapping regulations from
SEBI/RBI/MCA, high disclosure requirements, and procedural delays) hinder participation,
liquidity, and broader issuer access. Recent reforms aim to ease some norms (e.g., reduced
minimum ticket sizes for retail), but norms are generally seen as tight/constraining rather than
relaxed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
High transaction cost: High transaction costs (including stamp duties, compliance fees,
issuance costs, and secondary market frictions) deter issuers (especially smaller ones) and
investors, reduce attractiveness compared to bank loans, and contribute to low liquidity and
private placement dominance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Low retail investor penetration: Retail participation remains very low (<5% typically) due to
high entry barriers (previously large minimum lots, though recently reduced), complexity,
perceived risks, information asymmetry, low awareness, and unfavorable tax treatment. This
narrows the investor base, limits diversification, and hampers secondary market depth. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
2) Consider the following Statements
1. India depends entirely on imports for potash (potassium) fertilizers.
2. Urea fertilizers are regulated by the government in price and distribution, while non-urea
fertilizers are market-priced.
3. The PM‑PRANAM scheme promotes balanced fertilizer use and sustainable practices,
contributing to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency.
1. India depends entirely on imports for potash (potassium) fertilizers.
2. Urea fertilizers are regulated by the government in price and distribution, while non-urea
fertilizers are market-priced.
3. The PM‑PRANAM scheme promotes balanced fertilizer use and sustainable practices,
contributing to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 and 2 only
13%
1 and 3 only
36%
2 and 3 only
43%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
●
India produces the majority of its nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, which makes the
country largely self-reliant in this category. However, India does not have significant domestic
potash (potassium) reserves, so it imports 100% of its potash fertilizers such as Muriate of
Potash (MOP).
●
While India produces most nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, potassium fertilizers remain
fully import-dependent. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
Urea fertilizers are fully regulated by the government, with fixed prices (Maximum Retail
Price) and controlled distribution to ensure affordability and prevent diversion.
In contrast, non-urea fertilizers such as DAP, NPK, and MOP are market-priced, but the
government provides subsidies to maintain affordability for farmers. This creates a semi-market
environment for non-urea fertilizers while keeping urea fully controlled. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
●
The PM‑PRANAM (Prime Minister’s Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation,
Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme encourages balanced use of
fertilizers and adoption of sustainable agricultural practices.
●
By promoting efficient nutrient use and reducing over-reliance on chemical fertilizers,
PM‑PRANAM contributes to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency and long-term soil health. Hence
Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
●
India produces the majority of its nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, which makes the
country largely self-reliant in this category. However, India does not have significant domestic
potash (potassium) reserves, so it imports 100% of its potash fertilizers such as Muriate of
Potash (MOP).
●
While India produces most nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, potassium fertilizers remain
fully import-dependent. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
Urea fertilizers are fully regulated by the government, with fixed prices (Maximum Retail
Price) and controlled distribution to ensure affordability and prevent diversion.
In contrast, non-urea fertilizers such as DAP, NPK, and MOP are market-priced, but the
government provides subsidies to maintain affordability for farmers. This creates a semi-market
environment for non-urea fertilizers while keeping urea fully controlled. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
●
The PM‑PRANAM (Prime Minister’s Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation,
Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme encourages balanced use of
fertilizers and adoption of sustainable agricultural practices.
●
By promoting efficient nutrient use and reducing over-reliance on chemical fertilizers,
PM‑PRANAM contributes to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency and long-term soil health. Hence
Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
1. 2. The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases that involve major environmental issues.
The Tribunal is not strictly bound by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908 but follows the principles
of ‘natural justice’
3. It deals with cases related to the Forest Rights Act, 200
1. 2. The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases that involve major environmental issues.
The Tribunal is not strictly bound by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908 but follows the principles
of ‘natural justice’
3. It deals with cases related to the Forest Rights Act, 200
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
62%
1,2 and 3
11%
1 and 3 only
12%
1 and 3 only
15%
2 and 3 only
Answer: (A)
●
The National Green Tribunal was indeed established on October 18, 2010, under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Its creation made India only the third country in the world—and the
first developing nation—to have a specialized environmental tribunal.
●
The NGT is a specialized body equipped with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.The NGT has the authority to hear all civil cases where a substantial question
relating to the environment is involved. This includes issues arising out of the implementation of
the laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. It has the power to provide relief, compensation to
victims of pollution, and restitution of property or the environment.Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
●
However, it is not bound by the strict rules of evidence; instead, it is guided by the principles of
natural justice. One of its primary mandates is to ensure the speedy disposal of environmental
cases, aiming for a resolution within six months of filing.Hence Statement 2 is correct.
●
The NGT has jurisdiction over civil cases related to seven specific laws listed in Schedule I of the
NGT Act:
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
●
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
●
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
●
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
●
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
●
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
●
Notably, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are not within
the NGT’s jurisdiction.Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
●
Therefore, option A is the correct ans
●
The National Green Tribunal was indeed established on October 18, 2010, under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Its creation made India only the third country in the world—and the
first developing nation—to have a specialized environmental tribunal.
●
The NGT is a specialized body equipped with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.The NGT has the authority to hear all civil cases where a substantial question
relating to the environment is involved. This includes issues arising out of the implementation of
the laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. It has the power to provide relief, compensation to
victims of pollution, and restitution of property or the environment.Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
●
However, it is not bound by the strict rules of evidence; instead, it is guided by the principles of
natural justice. One of its primary mandates is to ensure the speedy disposal of environmental
cases, aiming for a resolution within six months of filing.Hence Statement 2 is correct.
●
The NGT has jurisdiction over civil cases related to seven specific laws listed in Schedule I of the
NGT Act:
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
●
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
●
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
●
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
●
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
●
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
●
Notably, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are not within
the NGT’s jurisdiction.Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
●
Therefore, option A is the correct ans
Consider the following statements regarding Bodhan AI:
1. Bodhan AI is a non-profit initiative that aims to develop the Bharat EduAI Stack to integrate
Artificial Intelligence (AI) across all levels of education, from school to higher research.
2. It has been developed under the Ministry of Education.
1. Bodhan AI is a non-profit initiative that aims to develop the Bharat EduAI Stack to integrate
Artificial Intelligence (AI) across all levels of education, from school to higher research.
2. It has been developed under the Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
26%
1 only
6%
2 only
63%
Both 1 and 2
5%
Neither 1 nor 2
4) Answer: (C)
●
Bodhan AI is India’s national initiative for integrating Artificial Intelligence into the education
sector. Formally launched in February 2026, it serves as a specialized Digital Public
Infrastructure (DPI) aimed at making high-quality, personalized education accessible to every
student in their mother tongue. Its core mission is to make governance more inclusive and
ensure that citizen-centric services reach everyone, regardless of linguistic proficiency. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Bharat EduAI Stack: It will function as an open-source digital public infrastructure to
deploy AI tools across the education ecosystem, including personalised AI tutors,
AI-assisted teacher training and support, institutional administration systems, and
data-driven policy-making based on large learning datasets.
●
Developing Authority : It is established as a Section-8 non-profit organization (the IIT
Madras Bodhan AI Foundation). While hosted and developed at IIT Madras, it operates under
the direct mandate and funding of the Ministry of Education. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
●
Bodhan AI is India’s national initiative for integrating Artificial Intelligence into the education
sector. Formally launched in February 2026, it serves as a specialized Digital Public
Infrastructure (DPI) aimed at making high-quality, personalized education accessible to every
student in their mother tongue. Its core mission is to make governance more inclusive and
ensure that citizen-centric services reach everyone, regardless of linguistic proficiency. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Bharat EduAI Stack: It will function as an open-source digital public infrastructure to
deploy AI tools across the education ecosystem, including personalised AI tutors,
AI-assisted teacher training and support, institutional administration systems, and
data-driven policy-making based on large learning datasets.
●
Developing Authority : It is established as a Section-8 non-profit organization (the IIT
Madras Bodhan AI Foundation). While hosted and developed at IIT Madras, it operates under
the direct mandate and funding of the Ministry of Education. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
5) Consider the following statements:
1. Biofortification of food
2. Development of climate-resilient agricultural crops
3. Treatment of neurological disorders
4. Personalized medicine
5. Production of biofuels
1. Biofortification of food
2. Development of climate-resilient agricultural crops
3. Treatment of neurological disorders
4. Personalized medicine
5. Production of biofuels
Which of the above are applications of genome editing?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1,2 and 3 only
15%
1,2,3 and 4 only
18%
1,2,4 and 5 only
63%
1,2,3,4 and 5 only
5) Answer: (D)
●
Genome editing (specifically CRISPR-Cas9) is considered a "horizontal" technology because its
ability to precisely rewrite DNA allows it to be applied across almost every field of biological
science.
●
Applications
●
Biofortification of Food: Unlike traditional breeding, genome editing can precisely
knock out genes that inhibit nutrient absorption or "turn up" genes that produce
vitamins.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
○
Example: High-GABA tomatoes in Japan or browning-resistant bananas that
retain nutrients longer.
●
Climate-Resilient Crops: Scientists edit genes to help plants withstand abiotic stresses
like salinity, drought, and extreme heat.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○
Example: In India, researchers are working on Rice (DRR 100), which is edited to
maintain yields even under water-stressed conditions.
●
Treatment of Neurological Disorders: This is a frontier in medicine. Genome editing is
being researched to "silence" the toxic proteins produced in diseases like Huntington’s
Disease or to edit the cells involved in Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.Hence, statement
3 is correct.
●
Personalized Medicine: Genome editing allows for therapies tailored to a patient's
specific genetic makeup.Hence, statement 4 is correct.
○
Example: CAR-T cell therapy for cancer, where a patient’s own immune cells are
edited to better recognize and kill their specific type of cancer cells.
●
Production of Biofuels: Editing the genomes of algae or bacteria can make them
significantly more efficient at breaking down cellulose or producing high quantities of
lipids (oils) that can be converted into fuel.Hence, statement 5 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answe
●
Genome editing (specifically CRISPR-Cas9) is considered a "horizontal" technology because its
ability to precisely rewrite DNA allows it to be applied across almost every field of biological
science.
●
Applications
●
Biofortification of Food: Unlike traditional breeding, genome editing can precisely
knock out genes that inhibit nutrient absorption or "turn up" genes that produce
vitamins.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
○
Example: High-GABA tomatoes in Japan or browning-resistant bananas that
retain nutrients longer.
●
Climate-Resilient Crops: Scientists edit genes to help plants withstand abiotic stresses
like salinity, drought, and extreme heat.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○
Example: In India, researchers are working on Rice (DRR 100), which is edited to
maintain yields even under water-stressed conditions.
●
Treatment of Neurological Disorders: This is a frontier in medicine. Genome editing is
being researched to "silence" the toxic proteins produced in diseases like Huntington’s
Disease or to edit the cells involved in Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.Hence, statement
3 is correct.
●
Personalized Medicine: Genome editing allows for therapies tailored to a patient's
specific genetic makeup.Hence, statement 4 is correct.
○
Example: CAR-T cell therapy for cancer, where a patient’s own immune cells are
edited to better recognize and kill their specific type of cancer cells.
●
Production of Biofuels: Editing the genomes of algae or bacteria can make them
significantly more efficient at breaking down cellulose or producing high quantities of
lipids (oils) that can be converted into fuel.Hence, statement 5 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answe
With reference to the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946, consider the following statements:
1. The cause of the uprising was the protest against the poor food quality and racial discrimination
by British officers.
2. One of the key demands is the release of INA prisoners.
3. Mahatma Gandhi supported the mutiny as a continuation of the Quit India sentiment.
1. The cause of the uprising was the protest against the poor food quality and racial discrimination
by British officers.
2. One of the key demands is the release of INA prisoners.
3. Mahatma Gandhi supported the mutiny as a continuation of the Quit India sentiment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 only
13%
1 and 3 only
55%
1 and 2 only
25%
All are Correct
1) Answer: (C)
●
The Royal Indian Navy Revolt (1946), also known as the Naval Mutiny, was a significant event in
India’s freedom struggle that reflected growing dissatisfaction with British colonial rule and
widespread social, political, and economic inequalities. On 18 February 1946, around 1,100 sailors
of HMIS Talwar in Bombay went on strike against harsh treatment and poor food, raising
nationalist slogans such as “Jai Hind,
” “Release INA Prisoners,
” and “Quit India.
” The protest
symbolised unity as sailors hoisted the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist
Party, and the movement quickly spread to Calcutta, Madras, Karachi, and Vizag.Though largely
leaderless and lacking support from major political parties, the revolt marked a turning point in
the relationship between the British Raj and the Indian armed forces and symbolised India’s
strong desire for independence, contributing to the British decision to withdraw in 1947.
●
The 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny began on 18 February 1946 at HMIS Talwar in
Bombay as a strike by naval ratings protesting against poor food quality, inadequate pay,
harsh living conditions, and racial discrimination by British officers. What started as a “food
boycott” soon transformed into a broader, though short-lived, revolt against colonial rule,
spreading to other naval establishments. The uprising was eventually called off after mediation by
national leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, but it strongly
indicated the weakening of British authority and signalled the approaching end of British rule in
India. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
●
The central demand being the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners of Netaji Subhas
Chandra Bose. What started as a service-related protest quickly turned into a political revolt
against British rule, reflecting the growing nationalist spirit. The key demands included theOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
●
●
immediate release of INA and other political prisoners, improvement in food, pay, and
accommodation on par with the Royal Navy, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia and the
Middle East, and strict action against British officers accused of racial abuse and ill-treatment of
Indian ratings. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
Mahatma Gandhi did not support the 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny and strongly
condemned it, criticizing its violent, leaderless, and uncoordinated character. Although he
sympathized with the genuine grievances of the sailors, he believed that mutiny was not the right
method to achieve independence and warned that such actions could lead to chaos and
indiscipline. Along with him, leaders like Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru urged
the naval ratings to surrender and emphasized negotiation to prevent further bloodshed. The
revolt, which spread across Bombay, Karachi, and Calcutta in February 1946, posed a serious
challenge to British authority. In contrast, the Communist Party of India and leaders like Aruna
Asaf Ali supported the mutineers. Despite its suppression, the uprising demonstrated to the
British that they could no longer fully rely on the loyalty of the Indian armed forces to sustain
colonial rule. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer
●
The Royal Indian Navy Revolt (1946), also known as the Naval Mutiny, was a significant event in
India’s freedom struggle that reflected growing dissatisfaction with British colonial rule and
widespread social, political, and economic inequalities. On 18 February 1946, around 1,100 sailors
of HMIS Talwar in Bombay went on strike against harsh treatment and poor food, raising
nationalist slogans such as “Jai Hind,
” “Release INA Prisoners,
” and “Quit India.
” The protest
symbolised unity as sailors hoisted the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist
Party, and the movement quickly spread to Calcutta, Madras, Karachi, and Vizag.Though largely
leaderless and lacking support from major political parties, the revolt marked a turning point in
the relationship between the British Raj and the Indian armed forces and symbolised India’s
strong desire for independence, contributing to the British decision to withdraw in 1947.
●
The 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny began on 18 February 1946 at HMIS Talwar in
Bombay as a strike by naval ratings protesting against poor food quality, inadequate pay,
harsh living conditions, and racial discrimination by British officers. What started as a “food
boycott” soon transformed into a broader, though short-lived, revolt against colonial rule,
spreading to other naval establishments. The uprising was eventually called off after mediation by
national leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, but it strongly
indicated the weakening of British authority and signalled the approaching end of British rule in
India. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
●
The central demand being the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners of Netaji Subhas
Chandra Bose. What started as a service-related protest quickly turned into a political revolt
against British rule, reflecting the growing nationalist spirit. The key demands included theOFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS Academy by IAS Officers
●
●
immediate release of INA and other political prisoners, improvement in food, pay, and
accommodation on par with the Royal Navy, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia and the
Middle East, and strict action against British officers accused of racial abuse and ill-treatment of
Indian ratings. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
Mahatma Gandhi did not support the 1946 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny and strongly
condemned it, criticizing its violent, leaderless, and uncoordinated character. Although he
sympathized with the genuine grievances of the sailors, he believed that mutiny was not the right
method to achieve independence and warned that such actions could lead to chaos and
indiscipline. Along with him, leaders like Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru urged
the naval ratings to surrender and emphasized negotiation to prevent further bloodshed. The
revolt, which spread across Bombay, Karachi, and Calcutta in February 1946, posed a serious
challenge to British authority. In contrast, the Communist Party of India and leaders like Aruna
Asaf Ali supported the mutineers. Despite its suppression, the uprising demonstrated to the
British that they could no longer fully rely on the loyalty of the Indian armed forces to sustain
colonial rule. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer