With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India, consider the following statements
1. The Model Code of Conduct was created under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
2. The MCC comes into operation immediately upon the announcement of the election schedule
and remains in force until the results are declared.
3. Under the MCC, the Party in Power cannot announce new projects during elections.
1. The Model Code of Conduct was created under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
2. The MCC comes into operation immediately upon the announcement of the election schedule
and remains in force until the results are declared.
3. Under the MCC, the Party in Power cannot announce new projects during elections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
1 and 3 only
5%
1 only
19%
1 and 2 only
57%
2 and 3 only
Answer: (D)
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of
India to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections, ensuring free and
fair contests. It allows the Election Commission to uphold its mandate under Article 324 of the
Constitution, which empowers it to supervise and conduct elections to the Parliament and State
Legislatures impartially.
●
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a law. It was neither enacted by Parliament nor
included in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Instead, it is a set of voluntary
guidelines agreed upon by political parties since 1960. The Election Commission of India
relies on the Representation of the People Act only to penalize specific illegal acts, such as
bribery or the spreading of hate speech. Hence Statement 1 is Incorrect.
●
The MCC comes into effect as soon as the Election Commission announces the election
schedule and remains in force until the results are declared. This ensures no party can
manipulate rules or influence voters unfairly during the election period. Hence Statement 2
is correct.
●
The MCC enforces a "level playing field"
, preventing the ruling party from misusing
government resources. Officials, government vehicles, or public funds cannot be used for
campaigning, and no new schemes or projects that could influence voters (“freebies”) may be
announced. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct an
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of
India to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections, ensuring free and
fair contests. It allows the Election Commission to uphold its mandate under Article 324 of the
Constitution, which empowers it to supervise and conduct elections to the Parliament and State
Legislatures impartially.
●
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a law. It was neither enacted by Parliament nor
included in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Instead, it is a set of voluntary
guidelines agreed upon by political parties since 1960. The Election Commission of India
relies on the Representation of the People Act only to penalize specific illegal acts, such as
bribery or the spreading of hate speech. Hence Statement 1 is Incorrect.
●
The MCC comes into effect as soon as the Election Commission announces the election
schedule and remains in force until the results are declared. This ensures no party can
manipulate rules or influence voters unfairly during the election period. Hence Statement 2
is correct.
●
The MCC enforces a "level playing field"
, preventing the ruling party from misusing
government resources. Officials, government vehicles, or public funds cannot be used for
campaigning, and no new schemes or projects that could influence voters (“freebies”) may be
announced. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct an
With reference to the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, consider the following statements:
1. 2. A woman is entitled to two nursing breaks daily until the child attains the age of fifteen months.
No woman shall work in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the day
of her delivery and also miscarriage.
3. The Act applies to every establishment employing ten or more person
1. 2. A woman is entitled to two nursing breaks daily until the child attains the age of fifteen months.
No woman shall work in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the day
of her delivery and also miscarriage.
3. The Act applies to every establishment employing ten or more person
Which of the statements given above are corre
Anonymous Quiz
19%
1 and 3 only
12%
2 only
22%
1 and 2 only
47%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
The Maternity Benefit Act safeguards the employment rights of women during pregnancy by
providing paid maternity leave and related benefits. It ensures job security, health protection, and
nursing support for working mothers in establishments with 10 or more employees.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman who returns to work after delivery is entitled to two
nursing breaks per day, in addition to the regular rest interval provided during working hours.
●
These nursing breaks are specifically meant to allow the mother to breastfeed or attend to her
child, and this benefit continues until the child attains the age of 15 months. The duration of
each break is prescribed by rules, and the employer cannot deny this facility during the eligible
period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, no woman is permitted to work in any establishment during
the six weeks immediately following the day of her delivery or miscarriage. This is a
mandatory protective provision aimed at safeguarding the health of both the mother and the
newborn.
●
During this period, the employer is legally prohibited from employing her, even if she is willing to
work. The objective is to ensure adequate physical recovery, prevent health complications, and
uphold maternal welfare as a matter of statutory right rather than employer discretion. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
It applies to establishments employing 10 or more persons and mandates crèche facilities in
those with 50 or more employees. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
The Maternity Benefit Act safeguards the employment rights of women during pregnancy by
providing paid maternity leave and related benefits. It ensures job security, health protection, and
nursing support for working mothers in establishments with 10 or more employees.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman who returns to work after delivery is entitled to two
nursing breaks per day, in addition to the regular rest interval provided during working hours.
●
These nursing breaks are specifically meant to allow the mother to breastfeed or attend to her
child, and this benefit continues until the child attains the age of 15 months. The duration of
each break is prescribed by rules, and the employer cannot deny this facility during the eligible
period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, no woman is permitted to work in any establishment during
the six weeks immediately following the day of her delivery or miscarriage. This is a
mandatory protective provision aimed at safeguarding the health of both the mother and the
newborn.
●
During this period, the employer is legally prohibited from employing her, even if she is willing to
work. The objective is to ensure adequate physical recovery, prevent health complications, and
uphold maternal welfare as a matter of statutory right rather than employer discretion. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
It applies to establishments employing 10 or more persons and mandates crèche facilities in
those with 50 or more employees. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
5) With reference to the New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1 and 2 only
31%
2 and 3 only
20%
1 and 3 only
45%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
1) Which among the following are reasons for hindering growth of corporate bond market development?
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration
Select the correct code given below:
Anonymous Quiz
3%
Only one
18%
Only two
30%
Only three
49%
Only four
Answer: (D)
The corporate bond market is the segment of the debt (or fixed-income) market where corporations
(private and public companies) issue bonds to raise long-term capital from investors. These bonds are
essentially debt securities: when you buy a corporate bond, you are lending money to the issuing
company in exchange for:
●
Regular interest payments (called coupons, usually fixed or floating rates).
●
Repayment of the principal (face value) at maturity (end of the bond term, which can range
from a few years to decades).
Reasons hindering the growth of the corporate bond market in India
●
Crowding out by Government Borrowing: High government borrowing (due to fiscal deficits)
crowds out corporate issuances by absorbing liquidity, dominating investor interest (safer
G-Secs), and limiting benchmark development for corporate bonds. This is frequently cited in
analyses (e.g., BIS papers, NITI Aayog reports, and Economic Survey discussions on debt
dynamics). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Stringent regulatory norms: Stringent/overly restrictive regulatory norms (e.g., investment
mandates for institutions limiting exposure to lower-rated bonds, overlapping regulations from
SEBI/RBI/MCA, high disclosure requirements, and procedural delays) hinder participation,
liquidity, and broader issuer access. Recent reforms aim to ease some norms (e.g., reduced
minimum ticket sizes for retail), but norms are generally seen as tight/constraining rather than
relaxed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
High transaction cost: High transaction costs (including stamp duties, compliance fees,
issuance costs, and secondary market frictions) deter issuers (especially smaller ones) and
investors, reduce attractiveness compared to bank loans, and contribute to low liquidity and
private placement dominance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Low retail investor penetration: Retail participation remains very low (<5% typically) due to
high entry barriers (previously large minimum lots, though recently reduced), complexity,
perceived risks, information asymmetry, low awareness, and unfavorable tax treatment. This
narrows the investor base, limits diversification, and hampers secondary market depth. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
The corporate bond market is the segment of the debt (or fixed-income) market where corporations
(private and public companies) issue bonds to raise long-term capital from investors. These bonds are
essentially debt securities: when you buy a corporate bond, you are lending money to the issuing
company in exchange for:
●
Regular interest payments (called coupons, usually fixed or floating rates).
●
Repayment of the principal (face value) at maturity (end of the bond term, which can range
from a few years to decades).
Reasons hindering the growth of the corporate bond market in India
●
Crowding out by Government Borrowing: High government borrowing (due to fiscal deficits)
crowds out corporate issuances by absorbing liquidity, dominating investor interest (safer
G-Secs), and limiting benchmark development for corporate bonds. This is frequently cited in
analyses (e.g., BIS papers, NITI Aayog reports, and Economic Survey discussions on debt
dynamics). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Stringent regulatory norms: Stringent/overly restrictive regulatory norms (e.g., investment
mandates for institutions limiting exposure to lower-rated bonds, overlapping regulations from
SEBI/RBI/MCA, high disclosure requirements, and procedural delays) hinder participation,
liquidity, and broader issuer access. Recent reforms aim to ease some norms (e.g., reduced
minimum ticket sizes for retail), but norms are generally seen as tight/constraining rather than
relaxed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
High transaction cost: High transaction costs (including stamp duties, compliance fees,
issuance costs, and secondary market frictions) deter issuers (especially smaller ones) and
investors, reduce attractiveness compared to bank loans, and contribute to low liquidity and
private placement dominance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Low retail investor penetration: Retail participation remains very low (<5% typically) due to
high entry barriers (previously large minimum lots, though recently reduced), complexity,
perceived risks, information asymmetry, low awareness, and unfavorable tax treatment. This
narrows the investor base, limits diversification, and hampers secondary market depth. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
2) Consider the following Statements
1. India depends entirely on imports for potash (potassium) fertilizers.
2. Urea fertilizers are regulated by the government in price and distribution, while non-urea
fertilizers are market-priced.
3. The PM‑PRANAM scheme promotes balanced fertilizer use and sustainable practices,
contributing to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency.
1. India depends entirely on imports for potash (potassium) fertilizers.
2. Urea fertilizers are regulated by the government in price and distribution, while non-urea
fertilizers are market-priced.
3. The PM‑PRANAM scheme promotes balanced fertilizer use and sustainable practices,
contributing to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
1 and 2 only
13%
1 and 3 only
36%
2 and 3 only
43%
1,2 and 3
2) Answer: (D)
●
India produces the majority of its nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, which makes the
country largely self-reliant in this category. However, India does not have significant domestic
potash (potassium) reserves, so it imports 100% of its potash fertilizers such as Muriate of
Potash (MOP).
●
While India produces most nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, potassium fertilizers remain
fully import-dependent. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
Urea fertilizers are fully regulated by the government, with fixed prices (Maximum Retail
Price) and controlled distribution to ensure affordability and prevent diversion.
In contrast, non-urea fertilizers such as DAP, NPK, and MOP are market-priced, but the
government provides subsidies to maintain affordability for farmers. This creates a semi-market
environment for non-urea fertilizers while keeping urea fully controlled. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
●
The PM‑PRANAM (Prime Minister’s Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation,
Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme encourages balanced use of
fertilizers and adoption of sustainable agricultural practices.
●
By promoting efficient nutrient use and reducing over-reliance on chemical fertilizers,
PM‑PRANAM contributes to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency and long-term soil health. Hence
Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
●
India produces the majority of its nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, which makes the
country largely self-reliant in this category. However, India does not have significant domestic
potash (potassium) reserves, so it imports 100% of its potash fertilizers such as Muriate of
Potash (MOP).
●
While India produces most nitrogen-based fertilizers domestically, potassium fertilizers remain
fully import-dependent. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
Urea fertilizers are fully regulated by the government, with fixed prices (Maximum Retail
Price) and controlled distribution to ensure affordability and prevent diversion.
In contrast, non-urea fertilizers such as DAP, NPK, and MOP are market-priced, but the
government provides subsidies to maintain affordability for farmers. This creates a semi-market
environment for non-urea fertilizers while keeping urea fully controlled. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
●
The PM‑PRANAM (Prime Minister’s Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation,
Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) scheme encourages balanced use of
fertilizers and adoption of sustainable agricultural practices.
●
By promoting efficient nutrient use and reducing over-reliance on chemical fertilizers,
PM‑PRANAM contributes to India’s fertilizer self-sufficiency and long-term soil health. Hence
Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
1. 2. The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases that involve major environmental issues.
The Tribunal is not strictly bound by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908 but follows the principles
of ‘natural justice’
3. It deals with cases related to the Forest Rights Act, 200
1. 2. The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases that involve major environmental issues.
The Tribunal is not strictly bound by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908 but follows the principles
of ‘natural justice’
3. It deals with cases related to the Forest Rights Act, 200
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
62%
1,2 and 3
11%
1 and 3 only
12%
1 and 3 only
15%
2 and 3 only
Answer: (A)
●
The National Green Tribunal was indeed established on October 18, 2010, under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Its creation made India only the third country in the world—and the
first developing nation—to have a specialized environmental tribunal.
●
The NGT is a specialized body equipped with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.The NGT has the authority to hear all civil cases where a substantial question
relating to the environment is involved. This includes issues arising out of the implementation of
the laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. It has the power to provide relief, compensation to
victims of pollution, and restitution of property or the environment.Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
●
However, it is not bound by the strict rules of evidence; instead, it is guided by the principles of
natural justice. One of its primary mandates is to ensure the speedy disposal of environmental
cases, aiming for a resolution within six months of filing.Hence Statement 2 is correct.
●
The NGT has jurisdiction over civil cases related to seven specific laws listed in Schedule I of the
NGT Act:
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
●
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
●
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
●
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
●
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
●
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
●
Notably, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are not within
the NGT’s jurisdiction.Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
●
Therefore, option A is the correct ans
●
The National Green Tribunal was indeed established on October 18, 2010, under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Its creation made India only the third country in the world—and the
first developing nation—to have a specialized environmental tribunal.
●
The NGT is a specialized body equipped with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.The NGT has the authority to hear all civil cases where a substantial question
relating to the environment is involved. This includes issues arising out of the implementation of
the laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. It has the power to provide relief, compensation to
victims of pollution, and restitution of property or the environment.Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
●
However, it is not bound by the strict rules of evidence; instead, it is guided by the principles of
natural justice. One of its primary mandates is to ensure the speedy disposal of environmental
cases, aiming for a resolution within six months of filing.Hence Statement 2 is correct.
●
The NGT has jurisdiction over civil cases related to seven specific laws listed in Schedule I of the
NGT Act:
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
●
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
●
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
●
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
●
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
●
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
●
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
●
Notably, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are not within
the NGT’s jurisdiction.Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
●
Therefore, option A is the correct ans
Consider the following statements regarding Bodhan AI:
1. Bodhan AI is a non-profit initiative that aims to develop the Bharat EduAI Stack to integrate
Artificial Intelligence (AI) across all levels of education, from school to higher research.
2. It has been developed under the Ministry of Education.
1. Bodhan AI is a non-profit initiative that aims to develop the Bharat EduAI Stack to integrate
Artificial Intelligence (AI) across all levels of education, from school to higher research.
2. It has been developed under the Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
26%
1 only
6%
2 only
63%
Both 1 and 2
5%
Neither 1 nor 2
4) Answer: (C)
●
Bodhan AI is India’s national initiative for integrating Artificial Intelligence into the education
sector. Formally launched in February 2026, it serves as a specialized Digital Public
Infrastructure (DPI) aimed at making high-quality, personalized education accessible to every
student in their mother tongue. Its core mission is to make governance more inclusive and
ensure that citizen-centric services reach everyone, regardless of linguistic proficiency. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Bharat EduAI Stack: It will function as an open-source digital public infrastructure to
deploy AI tools across the education ecosystem, including personalised AI tutors,
AI-assisted teacher training and support, institutional administration systems, and
data-driven policy-making based on large learning datasets.
●
Developing Authority : It is established as a Section-8 non-profit organization (the IIT
Madras Bodhan AI Foundation). While hosted and developed at IIT Madras, it operates under
the direct mandate and funding of the Ministry of Education. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
●
Bodhan AI is India’s national initiative for integrating Artificial Intelligence into the education
sector. Formally launched in February 2026, it serves as a specialized Digital Public
Infrastructure (DPI) aimed at making high-quality, personalized education accessible to every
student in their mother tongue. Its core mission is to make governance more inclusive and
ensure that citizen-centric services reach everyone, regardless of linguistic proficiency. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Bharat EduAI Stack: It will function as an open-source digital public infrastructure to
deploy AI tools across the education ecosystem, including personalised AI tutors,
AI-assisted teacher training and support, institutional administration systems, and
data-driven policy-making based on large learning datasets.
●
Developing Authority : It is established as a Section-8 non-profit organization (the IIT
Madras Bodhan AI Foundation). While hosted and developed at IIT Madras, it operates under
the direct mandate and funding of the Ministry of Education. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.