Consider the following statements, regarding Khelo India scheme:
1. Under the scheme, 1,000 talented athletes are selected every year and given ₹5 lakh
annually for eight years.
2. The Khelo India initiative aims to promote indigenous sports at the grass-root levels.
3. Esports has been included as a demonstration sport to promote competitive gaming.
1. Under the scheme, 1,000 talented athletes are selected every year and given ₹5 lakh
annually for eight years.
2. The Khelo India initiative aims to promote indigenous sports at the grass-root levels.
3. Esports has been included as a demonstration sport to promote competitive gaming.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1 and 3 only
36%
2 and 3 only
13%
1 and 2 only
45%
1,2 and 3
Answer: (D)
The Khelo India programme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports,
Government of India, launched in 2018 to promote sports culture across the country. It aims to
strengthen sports at the grassroots level, identify and nurture talented athletes, and build a strong
pathway from school-level participation to elite international performance.
• Under the Khelo India scheme, a High-Powered Committee identifies 1,000 talented
athletes every year from priority sports disciplines.
• These athletes are provided ₹5 lakh per annum for eight years under the Long-Term
Athlete Development Programme (LTADP). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The objective is to ensure sustained financial, coaching, equipment, diet, and competition
support so that promising athletes can progress from grassroots to elite levels.
• One of the core objectives of Khelo India is to revive and promote sports culture at the
grassroots level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It emphasizes:
• Mass participation through school and university games
• Promotion of indigenous and traditional sports
• Development of sports infrastructure across districts
• Esports has been included as a demonstration sport in Khelo India events to promote
organized competitive gaming, encourage youth participation, and recognize it as a
structured sporting discipline. Hence, statement 3 is co
The Khelo India programme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports,
Government of India, launched in 2018 to promote sports culture across the country. It aims to
strengthen sports at the grassroots level, identify and nurture talented athletes, and build a strong
pathway from school-level participation to elite international performance.
• Under the Khelo India scheme, a High-Powered Committee identifies 1,000 talented
athletes every year from priority sports disciplines.
• These athletes are provided ₹5 lakh per annum for eight years under the Long-Term
Athlete Development Programme (LTADP). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The objective is to ensure sustained financial, coaching, equipment, diet, and competition
support so that promising athletes can progress from grassroots to elite levels.
• One of the core objectives of Khelo India is to revive and promote sports culture at the
grassroots level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It emphasizes:
• Mass participation through school and university games
• Promotion of indigenous and traditional sports
• Development of sports infrastructure across districts
• Esports has been included as a demonstration sport in Khelo India events to promote
organized competitive gaming, encourage youth participation, and recognize it as a
structured sporting discipline. Hence, statement 3 is co
Seeing the strong interest from students, we are happy to announce the launch of our Comprehensive Current Affairs – Batch 4!
Classes will be conducted by Mr. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS, Director, Officers IAS Academy.
📅 Start Date: 20th February 2025
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Download the Brochure: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KspsPSGAYp2EHBp0c9lKRPOGHEmFq4r9/view?usp=sharing
To register : https://imjo.in/QxBmqW
Those who missed the October batch can take this opportunity and join us to strengthen your preparation with expert guidance.
Classes will be conducted by Mr. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS, Director, Officers IAS Academy.
📅 Start Date: 20th February 2025
This specialised program covers Polity, Economy, Geography, Environment, International Relations, Science & Tech, and more, giving you a solid edge for UPSC Prelims 2026.
Download the Brochure: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KspsPSGAYp2EHBp0c9lKRPOGHEmFq4r9/view?usp=sharing
To register : https://imjo.in/QxBmqW
Those who missed the October batch can take this opportunity and join us to strengthen your preparation with expert guidance.
1) Consider the following:
1. Food industry
2. Pharmaceuticals
3. Agriculture
4. Textiles
5. Construction sector
1. Food industry
2. Pharmaceuticals
3. Agriculture
4. Textiles
5. Construction sector
Which of the above areas use bio-based chemic
Anonymous Quiz
4%
Only two
17%
Only three
17%
Only four
62%
All five
Answer: (D)
Bio-based chemicals (often written as biobased chemicals) are substances derived wholly or partially
from renewable biological sources, such as plants, agricultural residues, forestry materials, algae, or
microorganisms, rather than from fossil fuels like petroleum or natural gas. These chemicals serve as
sustainable alternatives to traditional petrochemicals, helping to reduce greenhouse gas emissions,
dependence on non-renewable resources, and environmental impact while supporting a shift toward a
circular bioeconomy.
●
Food industry: Bio-based chemicals like citric acid, lactic acid, and bio-preservatives serve as
food additives, preservatives, and ingredients in processing, while bio-based polymers (e.g., PLA)
are used in food packaging and containers.
●
Pharmaceuticals: They are employed in drug synthesis and formulations (e.g., glycerol, sorbitol,
and fermentation-derived intermediates for active pharmaceutical ingredients or delivery
systems).
●
Agriculture: Bio-based chemicals function as bio-pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed additives,
soil enhancers, or dispersants (e.g., lignosulfonates in agricultural applications).
●
Textiles: They are used in dyes, finishes, enzymes for processing (e.g., bio-scouring or
biostoning), bio-based fibers/polymers (e.g., bio-polyester, viscose from biomass), and
sustainable auxiliaries to reduce environmental impact.
●
Construction sector: Bio-based chemicals appear in adhesives, binders, concrete admixtures
(e.g., lignosulfonates as dispersants), paints, coatings, insulation materials, and bio-composites
for sustainable building products.
●
All the given areas are correct. Therefore, option D is the correct ans
Bio-based chemicals (often written as biobased chemicals) are substances derived wholly or partially
from renewable biological sources, such as plants, agricultural residues, forestry materials, algae, or
microorganisms, rather than from fossil fuels like petroleum or natural gas. These chemicals serve as
sustainable alternatives to traditional petrochemicals, helping to reduce greenhouse gas emissions,
dependence on non-renewable resources, and environmental impact while supporting a shift toward a
circular bioeconomy.
●
Food industry: Bio-based chemicals like citric acid, lactic acid, and bio-preservatives serve as
food additives, preservatives, and ingredients in processing, while bio-based polymers (e.g., PLA)
are used in food packaging and containers.
●
Pharmaceuticals: They are employed in drug synthesis and formulations (e.g., glycerol, sorbitol,
and fermentation-derived intermediates for active pharmaceutical ingredients or delivery
systems).
●
Agriculture: Bio-based chemicals function as bio-pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed additives,
soil enhancers, or dispersants (e.g., lignosulfonates in agricultural applications).
●
Textiles: They are used in dyes, finishes, enzymes for processing (e.g., bio-scouring or
biostoning), bio-based fibers/polymers (e.g., bio-polyester, viscose from biomass), and
sustainable auxiliaries to reduce environmental impact.
●
Construction sector: Bio-based chemicals appear in adhesives, binders, concrete admixtures
(e.g., lignosulfonates as dispersants), paints, coatings, insulation materials, and bio-composites
for sustainable building products.
●
All the given areas are correct. Therefore, option D is the correct ans
With regard to Tipu Sultan, consider the following Statements
1. He is regarded as a pioneer of rocket technology in India for developing iron-cased rockets.
2. One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry
3. He established a state-run trading company to control the export of Profitable commodities.
1. He is regarded as a pioneer of rocket technology in India for developing iron-cased rockets.
2. One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry
3. He established a state-run trading company to control the export of Profitable commodities.
With regard to Tipu Sultan, consider the following Statements
1. He is regarded as a pioneer of rocket technology in India for developing iron-cased rockets.
2. One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry
3. He established a state-run trading company to control the export of Profitable commodities.
1. He is regarded as a pioneer of rocket technology in India for developing iron-cased rockets.
2. One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry
3. He established a state-run trading company to control the export of Profitable commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correc
Anonymous Quiz
12%
1 and 2 only
14%
2 and 3 only
6%
2 and 3 only
68%
1,2 and 3
Answer: (D)
●
Tipu is often called the pioneer of rocket technology in India. Unlike earlier versions made of
bamboo or paper, his rockets used iron casings, which allowed for higher gunpowder pressure
and a range of up to 2 km. These were the first of their kind used in warfare and later inspired
the British Congreve rockets. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry. He sent experts to
Bengal and even abroad to study silk cultivation and imported mulberry plants, laying the
foundation for a trade that still employs thousands in Karnataka today. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
He established a state-run trading company to control the export of lucrative commodities like
sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom. He set up "factories" (trading posts) in places like Muscat,
Jeddah, and Aden to promote foreign trade directly. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct an
●
Tipu is often called the pioneer of rocket technology in India. Unlike earlier versions made of
bamboo or paper, his rockets used iron casings, which allowed for higher gunpowder pressure
and a range of up to 2 km. These were the first of their kind used in warfare and later inspired
the British Congreve rockets. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
●
One of his most lasting legacies is the birth of the Mysore Silk industry. He sent experts to
Bengal and even abroad to study silk cultivation and imported mulberry plants, laying the
foundation for a trade that still employs thousands in Karnataka today. Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
He established a state-run trading company to control the export of lucrative commodities like
sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom. He set up "factories" (trading posts) in places like Muscat,
Jeddah, and Aden to promote foreign trade directly. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct an
With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India, consider the following statements
1. The Model Code of Conduct was created under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
2. The MCC comes into operation immediately upon the announcement of the election schedule
and remains in force until the results are declared.
3. Under the MCC, the Party in Power cannot announce new projects during elections.
1. The Model Code of Conduct was created under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
2. The MCC comes into operation immediately upon the announcement of the election schedule
and remains in force until the results are declared.
3. Under the MCC, the Party in Power cannot announce new projects during elections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
1 and 3 only
5%
1 only
19%
1 and 2 only
57%
2 and 3 only
Answer: (D)
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of
India to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections, ensuring free and
fair contests. It allows the Election Commission to uphold its mandate under Article 324 of the
Constitution, which empowers it to supervise and conduct elections to the Parliament and State
Legislatures impartially.
●
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a law. It was neither enacted by Parliament nor
included in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Instead, it is a set of voluntary
guidelines agreed upon by political parties since 1960. The Election Commission of India
relies on the Representation of the People Act only to penalize specific illegal acts, such as
bribery or the spreading of hate speech. Hence Statement 1 is Incorrect.
●
The MCC comes into effect as soon as the Election Commission announces the election
schedule and remains in force until the results are declared. This ensures no party can
manipulate rules or influence voters unfairly during the election period. Hence Statement 2
is correct.
●
The MCC enforces a "level playing field"
, preventing the ruling party from misusing
government resources. Officials, government vehicles, or public funds cannot be used for
campaigning, and no new schemes or projects that could influence voters (“freebies”) may be
announced. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct an
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of
India to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections, ensuring free and
fair contests. It allows the Election Commission to uphold its mandate under Article 324 of the
Constitution, which empowers it to supervise and conduct elections to the Parliament and State
Legislatures impartially.
●
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a law. It was neither enacted by Parliament nor
included in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Instead, it is a set of voluntary
guidelines agreed upon by political parties since 1960. The Election Commission of India
relies on the Representation of the People Act only to penalize specific illegal acts, such as
bribery or the spreading of hate speech. Hence Statement 1 is Incorrect.
●
The MCC comes into effect as soon as the Election Commission announces the election
schedule and remains in force until the results are declared. This ensures no party can
manipulate rules or influence voters unfairly during the election period. Hence Statement 2
is correct.
●
The MCC enforces a "level playing field"
, preventing the ruling party from misusing
government resources. Officials, government vehicles, or public funds cannot be used for
campaigning, and no new schemes or projects that could influence voters (“freebies”) may be
announced. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct an
With reference to the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, consider the following statements:
1. 2. A woman is entitled to two nursing breaks daily until the child attains the age of fifteen months.
No woman shall work in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the day
of her delivery and also miscarriage.
3. The Act applies to every establishment employing ten or more person
1. 2. A woman is entitled to two nursing breaks daily until the child attains the age of fifteen months.
No woman shall work in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the day
of her delivery and also miscarriage.
3. The Act applies to every establishment employing ten or more person
Which of the statements given above are corre
Anonymous Quiz
19%
1 and 3 only
12%
2 only
22%
1 and 2 only
47%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
The Maternity Benefit Act safeguards the employment rights of women during pregnancy by
providing paid maternity leave and related benefits. It ensures job security, health protection, and
nursing support for working mothers in establishments with 10 or more employees.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman who returns to work after delivery is entitled to two
nursing breaks per day, in addition to the regular rest interval provided during working hours.
●
These nursing breaks are specifically meant to allow the mother to breastfeed or attend to her
child, and this benefit continues until the child attains the age of 15 months. The duration of
each break is prescribed by rules, and the employer cannot deny this facility during the eligible
period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, no woman is permitted to work in any establishment during
the six weeks immediately following the day of her delivery or miscarriage. This is a
mandatory protective provision aimed at safeguarding the health of both the mother and the
newborn.
●
During this period, the employer is legally prohibited from employing her, even if she is willing to
work. The objective is to ensure adequate physical recovery, prevent health complications, and
uphold maternal welfare as a matter of statutory right rather than employer discretion. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
It applies to establishments employing 10 or more persons and mandates crèche facilities in
those with 50 or more employees. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
The Maternity Benefit Act safeguards the employment rights of women during pregnancy by
providing paid maternity leave and related benefits. It ensures job security, health protection, and
nursing support for working mothers in establishments with 10 or more employees.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman who returns to work after delivery is entitled to two
nursing breaks per day, in addition to the regular rest interval provided during working hours.
●
These nursing breaks are specifically meant to allow the mother to breastfeed or attend to her
child, and this benefit continues until the child attains the age of 15 months. The duration of
each break is prescribed by rules, and the employer cannot deny this facility during the eligible
period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
●
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, no woman is permitted to work in any establishment during
the six weeks immediately following the day of her delivery or miscarriage. This is a
mandatory protective provision aimed at safeguarding the health of both the mother and the
newborn.
●
During this period, the employer is legally prohibited from employing her, even if she is willing to
work. The objective is to ensure adequate physical recovery, prevent health complications, and
uphold maternal welfare as a matter of statutory right rather than employer discretion. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
It applies to establishments employing 10 or more persons and mandates crèche facilities in
those with 50 or more employees. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct ans
5) With reference to the New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with ₹1,00,000 crore Central Assistance to support
transformative urban projects.
2. A minimum of 50 per cent of project financing has to be mobilised from market sources.
3. It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affa
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
1 and 2 only
31%
2 and 3 only
20%
1 and 3 only
45%
1,2 and 3
5) Answer: (D)
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
●
The New Urban Challenge Fund (NUCF), also referred to as the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF)
is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The fund is a new Centrally
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It was
formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026 to implement visions announced in
the 2025-26 Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
●
The Central Government has allocated a total outlay of ₹1 lakh crore for the NUCF. The
scheme is designed to move away from purely grant-based models, requiring significant
contributions from states and the private sector (via PPPs or market instruments). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
●
Aims to support transit-oriented development, redevelopment, and brownfield projects.
●
Central Assistance will cover 25 percent of the project cost. The funding model marks a
shift from total grants to market-linked financing. The Central Government provides 25% as
Central Assistance, provided that the city/state mobilizes at least 50% from market sources
(bonds, bank loans, or PPPs). The remaining 25% is contributed by the States/ULBs.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
●
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
1) Which among the following are reasons for hindering growth of corporate bond market development?
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration
1. Crowding out by Government Borrowing
2. Stringent regulatory norms
3. High transaction cost
4. Low retail investor penetration