Answer: (A)
 Denotified Tribes are communities that were notified as “criminal tribes” during British
rule under the Criminal Tribes Act (CTA), 1871, and later “denotified” in 1952 after
Independence when the Act was repealed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 In 1949, the government appointed a Criminal Tribes Enquiry Committee (under
Ananthasayanam Ayyangar), which recommended the repeal of the Criminal Tribes
Act . In 1952, the Criminal Tribes Act was replaced by the Habitual Offenders Act. The
Act denotified the criminal designation and rather defined Habitual Offenders. Hence,
Statement 2 is Correct.
 While the DWBDNC was indeed established (in 2019), it does not fall under the Ministry
of Tribal Affairs. It is established under the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment.Most DNT communities do not fall strictly under the Scheduled Tribes
(ST) category; they are a mix of SC, ST, and OBC. Therefore, their welfare is managed by
Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
 Therefore, option A is the correct answe

2) Consider the following statements about the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons (NPT):
1. The NPT prohibits the use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
2. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) monitors nuclear facilities of NPT
Parties to ensure compliance with the Treaty.

Answer: (B)
 Article IV of the NPT explicitly guarantees that all Parties, including Non-Nuclear-
Weapon States (NNWS), have the inalienable right to develop, produce, and use
nuclear energy for peaceful purposes. The Treaty does not restrict peaceful nuclear
energy use only to Nuclear-Weapon States (NWS).
 Key provisions of the NPT
o Nuclear-Weapon States (NWS) agree not to transfer nuclear weapons or assist
non-nuclear-weapon states (NNWS) in acquiring them.
o Non-Nuclear-Weapon States agree not to receive, manufacture, or acquire
nuclear weapons.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 Under Article III, NNWS must accept IAEA safeguards on nuclear facilities to ensure
that nuclear energy is not diverted to weapons programs. The IAEA monitors
compliance for all Parties that have signed the Treaty. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Art 356 in India:
1. President’s Rule under Article 356 can be revoked by the President at any time without
requiring parliamentary approval.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment restricted the power of Parliament to extend the
President’s Rule beyond one year.

Answer: (A)
 President’s Rule is imposed under Article 356. Its revocation does not require
parliamentary approval and can be done by the President at any time through a
proclamation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 curtailed the arbitrary extension of
President’s Rule beyond one year. It provided that such extension is permissible only
when a National Emergency is in operation in the whole or part of the state, or when
the Election Commission certifies that elections to the state legislature cannot be
held. These safeguards were introduced to prevent misuse of Article 356 and to
strengthen federalism and democratic governance. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements about the Indian Mountaineering Foundation (IMF):
1. It is the apex national body in India for mountaineering and allied adventure sports.
2. IMF is also engaged in mountain protection work, knowledge building and creating
awareness of the Indian Himalaya.
3. It functions under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.

Answer: (D)
 The Indian Mountaineering Foundation (IMF) is the apex national body for
mountaineering and allied adventure sports (including trekking, sport climbing, rock
climbing, and related activities) in India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
 IMF supports, promotes and regulates national and international climbing and
mountaineering in India and is affiliated to the UIAA (International Mountaineering and
Climbing Federation). IMF is also the regulatory body for the competitive Olympic sport
of Sport Climbing and is affiliated to the IFSC (International Federation of Sport
Climbing). IMF is also engaged in mountain protection work, knowledge building
and creating awareness of the Indian Himalaya. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
 While the IMF is a registered society and not a full government department, it functions
under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Hence,
Statement 3 is correc

With reference to fiscal deficit, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Budget 2026–27 has set a fiscal deficit target of about 4.3% of GDP.
2. Fiscal deficit is the excess of total government expenditure over total revenue receipts
excluding borrowings.
3. Over the last five years, India’s fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP has shown a
declining trend after peaking during the COVID-19 period.

Answer: (D)
 The Union Budget 2026–27 has targeted the fiscal deficit at around 4.3% of GDP,
continuing the government’s medium-term fiscal consolidation path under the post-
pandemic roadmap. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct
 Fiscal deficit represents the gap between total government expenditure and total
revenue receipts excluding borrowings. In simple terms, it shows how much the
government needs to borrow in a financial year. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct
 India’s fiscal deficit peaked during the COVID-19 period (FY21) due to high
expenditure and revenue contraction. Since then, it has consistently declined over
the next five years, reflecting gradual fiscal consolidation through higher revenues and
controlled expenditure growth. Hence

Consider the following statements
1. The Kimberley Process is a global effort to stop the trade of conflict diamonds.
2. Madhya Pradesh accounts for highest reserves of diamonds in India
3. India is the founding member of Kimberley Process Certification Sc

Answer: (D)
It is a tripartite initiative involving governments, the international diamond industry and
civil society. It is aimed at preventing the trade in “conflict diamonds”.
Conflict diamonds are rough diamonds used by rebel groups or their allies to finance conflicts
that undermine legitimate governments. Governance: Each year, the Vice-Chair becomes the
Chair the next year. Chair and Vice-Chair are appointed by Plenary consensus. Hence
Statement 1 is Correct.
Diamond occurrences have been reported since prehistoric times in the country. Presently, the
diamond fields of India are grouped into four regions:
 South Indian tract of Andhra Pradesh, comprising parts of Anantapur, Kadapa,
Guntur, Krishna, Mahabubnagar, and Kurnool districts;
 Central Indian tract of Madhya Pradesh, comprising Panna belt;
 Behradin-Kodawali area in Raipur district and Tokapal, Dugapal, etc. areas in Bastar
district of Chhattisgarh; and
 Eastern Indian tract mostly of Odisha, lying between Mahanadi and Godavari valleys.
Madhya Pradesh accounts for about 90.18% of resources followed by Andhra Pradesh 5.72%
and Chhattisgarh 4.09%. In India, there is only one mine at Majhgaon in Panna (Madhya
Pradesh) of NMDC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS), India is a founding member. Its Goal is to
prevent "conflict diamonds" (blood diamonds) from entering the mainstream market. Recently,
the Kimberley Process (KP) Plenary has selected India to assume the chairmanship of the
Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026. Hen

2) Consider the following surveys:
1. Industrial Outlook Survey
2. Consumer Confidence Survey
3. Annual Survey of Industries

Answer: (B)
Industrial Outlook Survey (IOS)
 Conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
 A quarterly, forward-looking survey of the manufacturing sector.
 Assesses business sentiment on production, order books, capacity utilisation,
employment, prices, and financial conditions.
 Based on qualitative responses from manufacturing firms.
 Used by the RBI as an input for monetary policy formulation. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS)
 Conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
 A periodic (usually bi-monthly) survey of households.
 Captures perceptions on economic conditions, inflation, income, employment, and
spending.
 Generates indices such as Current Situation Index (CSI) and Future Expectations Index
(FEI).
 Helps RBI assess consumption demand and inflation expectations. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)
 Conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI.
 An annual statutory survey of registered manufacturing units.
 Provides quantitative data on output, input, employment, investment, and value added.
 Covers the entire organised manufacturing sector.
 Serves as the primary source of official industrial statistics for policy and national
accounts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, option B is the correct
answer

Which of the following is not covered under the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI)
Act, 2005?
CARES Fund)
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)
1. The Prime Ministers Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM
2. 3. 4. Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF)
National Defence Fund in India