With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs are mainly used for launching satellites meant for Earth resources
monitoring, whereas GSLVs are primarily used to launch communication satellites.
2. PSLV is primarily used for low Earth and polar orbits, whereas GSLV launches
heavier satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbit

Answer: (A)
● PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is mainly used for launching Earth observation
/ remote sensing / resource monitoring satellites into polar and sun-
synchronous orbits.
● GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is primarily designed to launch
communication satellites, which need to be placed in geosynchronous orbits.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● PSLV is well suited for Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and polar orbits.
● GSLV can launch heavier payloads into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO)
because it uses a cryogenic upper stage, which provides higher efficiency and thrust.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statement regarding Wetlands conservation
1. 2. National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems is a centrally sponsored scheme
aimed to conserve wetlands under the Ministry of Jal Shakthi.
West Bengal leads in the number of Ramsar sites in India.
3. Under the Amrit Dharohar scheme, the Management of Effectiveness Tracking Tool
(METT) is used to assess and manage India’s Ramsar sites.

Answer A
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA)
is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the Ministry of Environment forest and
climate change on a Centre–State cost-sharing basis for conservation and management of
wetlands. It aims at holistic restoration, including water quality improvement,
biodiversity conservation, and mainstreaming wetlands into developmental planning
through integrated management plans, capacity building, and research.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tamil Nadu currently leads India with the highest number of
Ramsar sites, not West Bengal. Tamil Nadu has 20 sites (Highest in India).Statement 3 is correct: The Management Effectiveness Tracking Tool (METT) has been
officially institutionalized as the "report card" for the Amrit Dharohar scheme to ensure that
India’s 98 Ramsar sites are managed with high standards. The tool used today is an Indian-
adapted version (often called R-METT) launched by the MoEFCC. It features:
● Rapid Assessment: A questionnaire-based approach that can be completed quickly
without expensive consultants.
● Standardized Scoring: It uses a 0–3 scale across 34 specific parameters to provide a
"Management Effectiveness Score."

With reference to the recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. 2. 3. The grant allocation for local bodies is proposed to be split in the ratio of 60% for rural
local bodies and 40% for urban local bodies.
The urbanisation premium recommended by the Commission aims to encourage the
conversion of rural areas with urban characteristics into Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
ULBs must have an elected council, audited accounts and notified property tax floor
rates to receive 16th Finance Commission grants.

Statement 1 is correct. The 16th Finance Commission has proposed that the total grants
allocated to local bodies during the period 2026–31 should be divided in the ratio of 60% for
rural local bodies and 40% for urban local bodies. This split reflects the Commission’s
attempt to balance the needs of rural decentralisation with the growing financial requirements
of urban governance.
Statement 2 is correct.The Commission has introduced an urbanisation premium to
address delays in granting statutory urban status to areas that already display urban
characteristics. This premium is intended to incentivise states to facilitate the transition of
peri-urban and census towns from rural local bodies to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs),
thereby enabling more appropriate urban planning and service delivery.
Statement 3 is correct.
To be eligible for 16th Finance Commission grants, ULBs must meet specific performance and
governance conditions:
● They must have an elected council
● Maintain audited accounts
● Implement notified property tax floor rates
This conditionality links grants to good governance, fiscal accountability, and
revenue mobilisation

Consider the following statements regarding Securities Transaction Tax (STT):
1. 2. It is an indirect tax levied on the purchase and sale of securities traded on a
recognized stock exchange in India.
The tax is calculated based on the net profit or capital gains realized by the investor
at the end of the financial year.

Answer: (D)
Explanation
Statement 1: Incorrect — Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a direct tax, not an indirect
tax. It is levied on transactions in securities traded on recognised stock exchanges and
collected at source, but it is not a tax on goods or services like indirect taxes (e.g., GST).
Statement 2: Incorrect — STT is levied on the transaction value at the time of buying
or selling securities, regardless of the profit or capital gains. STT is not based on profit or
income. It is a transaction-linked tax imposed at the time of execution. Whether you make
a profit or a loss on a trade, you must pay STT. Tax on profit is handled separately under

1) Daily MCQs: 05.02.2026
Consider the following statements regarding De-Notified Tribes (DNTs) in India.
1. During the colonial period, certain tribes were officially designated as criminal
communities under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871.
2. The Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 was repealed in 1949 following the recommendations of
the Ananthasayanam Ayyangar Committee.
3. The Development and Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic
Communities (DWBDNC) was established under the Ministry of Tribal Welfare to
monitor and evaluate the progress of schemes for DNTs

Answer: (A)
 Denotified Tribes are communities that were notified as “criminal tribes” during British
rule under the Criminal Tribes Act (CTA), 1871, and later “denotified” in 1952 after
Independence when the Act was repealed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 In 1949, the government appointed a Criminal Tribes Enquiry Committee (under
Ananthasayanam Ayyangar), which recommended the repeal of the Criminal Tribes
Act . In 1952, the Criminal Tribes Act was replaced by the Habitual Offenders Act. The
Act denotified the criminal designation and rather defined Habitual Offenders. Hence,
Statement 2 is Correct.
 While the DWBDNC was indeed established (in 2019), it does not fall under the Ministry
of Tribal Affairs. It is established under the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment.Most DNT communities do not fall strictly under the Scheduled Tribes
(ST) category; they are a mix of SC, ST, and OBC. Therefore, their welfare is managed by
Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
 Therefore, option A is the correct answe

2) Consider the following statements about the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons (NPT):
1. The NPT prohibits the use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
2. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) monitors nuclear facilities of NPT
Parties to ensure compliance with the Treaty.

Answer: (B)
 Article IV of the NPT explicitly guarantees that all Parties, including Non-Nuclear-
Weapon States (NNWS), have the inalienable right to develop, produce, and use
nuclear energy for peaceful purposes. The Treaty does not restrict peaceful nuclear
energy use only to Nuclear-Weapon States (NWS).
 Key provisions of the NPT
o Nuclear-Weapon States (NWS) agree not to transfer nuclear weapons or assist
non-nuclear-weapon states (NNWS) in acquiring them.
o Non-Nuclear-Weapon States agree not to receive, manufacture, or acquire
nuclear weapons.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 Under Article III, NNWS must accept IAEA safeguards on nuclear facilities to ensure
that nuclear energy is not diverted to weapons programs. The IAEA monitors
compliance for all Parties that have signed the Treaty. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Art 356 in India:
1. President’s Rule under Article 356 can be revoked by the President at any time without
requiring parliamentary approval.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment restricted the power of Parliament to extend the
President’s Rule beyond one year.

Answer: (A)
 President’s Rule is imposed under Article 356. Its revocation does not require
parliamentary approval and can be done by the President at any time through a
proclamation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 curtailed the arbitrary extension of
President’s Rule beyond one year. It provided that such extension is permissible only
when a National Emergency is in operation in the whole or part of the state, or when
the Election Commission certifies that elections to the state legislature cannot be
held. These safeguards were introduced to prevent misuse of Article 356 and to
strengthen federalism and democratic governance. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Therefore, option A is the correct answer.