Officers IAS Academy - Study Group
15.8K subscribers
2.8K photos
57 videos
352 files
2.43K links
Officers IAS Academy’s official Telegram group
Download Telegram
Answer:(B)
Statement 1 is Correct:
The Geological Survey of India was founded in 1851 by the East India Company, primarily to
find coal deposits for the railways. First geological surveyor of GSI was David Hiram Williams
and First director-general of GSI was Sir Thomas Oldham.
Statement 2 is Correct:
The Geological Survey of India identifies and designates geo-heritage sites/national geological
monuments for protection and upkeep. Accordingly, Geoheritage sites encompass, Geological
relics and phenomena Stratigraphic type sections, Geological structures and geomorphic
landforms, including caves and natural rock sculptures of national and international
significance. There are 32 geo-heritage sites located across 13 states.
Statement 3 is Correct:
The Geological Survey of India (GSI), plays a critical, science-driven role in India’s disaster
management framework, particularly in the pre-disaster (prevention/mitigation) and post-
disaster (recovery) stages. GSI serves as the primary national agency for geological studies,
specialized in mapping and monitoring Hazards.
Statement 4 is Incorrect:
Ministry of Mines (Central Govt.): Sets policy, legislation, and regulates major minerals (like
Coal, Iron Ore, Bauxite, Copper, now including Barytes, Mica, etc.) through the MMDR Act. GSI
identifies new, potential, and deep-seated mineral deposits using advanced techniques only
and has no role in classification of minerals.
Statement 5 is Incorrect:
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions as an attached office under the Ministry of
Mines, Government of India. It provides essential earth science information for policy, industry,
and public needs, covering mineral exploration, geo-technical studies, environmental hazards,
and mor
Consider the following pairs:
Initiative Primary Application
AI Parkhi Geospatial intelligence using satellite imagery
AI Kosha National repository of AI datasets and models
AI Vihangam Drishti Document analytics for governance records
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
24%
Only one
34%
Only two
40%
All three
2%
None off the above
Answer: (A)
Pair 1 is incorrect:
 AI Parkhi:
o Handles document analytics, not geospatial work.
o It reads scanned papers, extracts data from engineering drawings, and
processes governance files—used in 28 government offices for licensing
Pair 2 is correct:
 AI Kosha:
o Serves as the national repository of AI datasets and models
o It hosts 5,500+ non-personal AI datasets and models on platforms like AIKosh
for developers to build apps in farming, health, and more.
Pair 3 is incorrect:
 AI Vihangam Drishti:
o It does geospatial intelligence, not documents.
o It analyzes satellite/drone images to map 30,000 villages, track disasters,
estimate crop areas, or spot solar panels—like Google Earth on steroids for
planning.
With reference to the removal of judges in India, consider the following statements:
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed only on grounds of proved misbehavior
or incapacity.
2. The procedure for removal of a High Court Judge is identical to that of a Supreme Court
Judge.
3. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 provides for the investigation into allegations against a
judge through a three-member inquiry committee.
4. State Legislatures have no formal role in the removal process of judges of the High
Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are corre
Anonymous Quiz
9%
1 and 2 only
22%
1,2 and 3 only
58%
1,2,3 and 4
10%
2 and 4 only
Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is Correct:
The removal of a Supreme Court judge is permitted only on two clearly defined grounds. These
grounds are narrowly framed to prevent arbitrary or political removal and to safeguard judicial
independence. No other reasons such as inefficiency, disagreement with judgments, or
executive displeasure are valid grounds for removal.
Statement 2 is Correct:
The Constitution expressly provides that the same process, safeguards, and requirements
applicable to the removal of a Supreme Court judge are also applicable to a High Court judge.
This ensures uniformity in judicial protection across different levels of the higher judiciary and
prevents differential treatment.
Statement 3 is Correct:
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down the procedure for investigating allegations of
misbehavior or incapacity against judges. It provides for a three-member inquiry committee to
examine charges, collect evidence, and give the judge an opportunity to be heard. The
committee’s report forms the basis for further parliamentary action on removal.
Statement 4 is Correct:
Although High Courts function within the states, their judges are part of the higher judiciary.
To protect them from regional or political pressures, State Legislatures are completely excluded
from the removal process, which is conducted entirely at the national parliamentary level. The
state legislature can only report misbehavior or incompetence informally no formal role is
involved in the removal proce
How to Become an IAS, IPS Officer?

Attend an inspiring seminar by Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS (All India Rank 59) and discover how to prepare effectively for the Civil Services Examination with proven strategies, learn about the exam structure, understand the nuances and get a glimpse into the life and responsibilities of a civil servant.

📅 Date: January 31, 2026
🕥 Time: 10:30 AM
📍 Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai

We also invite parents to be a part of this session and understand the roadmap and commitment required for UPSC success. Don’t miss this chance to receive valuable guidance from one of the best mentors in the field!
To register : https://forms.gle/a3A782EMJn9iu8786
For any queries, reach us at +91 9363730226.
How to Become an IAS, IPS Officer?

Attend an inspiring seminar by Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS (All India Rank 59) and discover how to prepare effectively for the Civil Services Examination with proven strategies, learn about the exam structure, understand the nuances and get a glimpse into the life and responsibilities of a civil servant.

📅 Date: February 7, 2026
🕥 Time: 10:30 AM
📍 Venue: Coimbatore (Exact location will be intimated 2 days before the seminar).

We also invite parents to be a part of this session and understand the roadmap and commitment required for UPSC success. Don’t miss this chance to receive valuable guidance from one of the best mentors in the field!

To register : https://forms.gle/mHvij9xqMN2afGNk9

For any queries, reach us at +91 9363730226.
How to Become an IAS, IPS, IFS Officer?

Attend an inspiring seminar by Mr. Sylendra Babu IPS, Rtd-DGP, TN and discover how to prepare effectively for the Civil Services Examination with proven strategies, learn about the exam structure, understand the nuances and get a glimpse into the life and responsibilities of a civil servant.

📅 Date: February 7, 2026
🕥 Time: 11:00 AM
📍 Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai

We also invite parents to be a part of this session and understand the roadmap and commitment required for UPSC success. Don’t miss this chance to receive valuable guidance from one of the best mentors in the field!
To register : https://forms.gle/JKQxooNNS4CBNWf28
For any queries, reach us at +91 9363730226.
Consider the following statements
1. Tax revenues and borrowings constitute the largest share of the Union Government’s
receipts.
2. Transfers to States and interest payments account for a major portion of the Union
Government’s revenue expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
14%
1 only
13%
2 only
70%
Both 1 and 2
3%
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
• The Union Government’s main sources of income are:
o Tax revenue: Income tax, corporate tax, GST, excise duty, customs duty.
o Borrowings: Market loans and other liabilities to meet expenditure gaps.
o Among these, tax revenue and borrowings together form the largest share of
total receipts. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• On the expenditure side, two major components are:
o Transfer to states: This includes states’ share in central taxes and grants, as
recommended by the Finance Commission.
o Interest payments: Payment of interest on past borrowings of the government.
o These two heads together account for a substantial portion of total
government expenditure, even before spending on defence, subsidies,
infrastructure, and welfare schemes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct
Consider the following :
I. India’s first Budget was presented in 1860 during British colonial rule by James
Wilson.
II. In the first Budget of independent India, Finance Minister John Mathai announced
the establishment of the Planning Commission.
III. The 1991 Union Budget initiated economic reforms based on Liberalisation,
Privatisation and Globalisation during the Eighth Five Year Plan.
IV. The Railway Budget was introduced as a separate budget in 1924 and was merged
with the Union Budget in 2017.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
Anonymous Poll
7%
Only one
21%
Only two
36%
Only three
36%
All of four
Answer: (D)
• India’s first Budget was presented in 1860 during British colonial rule by James
Wilson, who was the first Finance Member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
• In the first Budget of independent India (1950–51), Finance Minister John Mathai
announced the establishment of the Planning Commission, which later guided India’s
planned economic development.Hence Statement II is Correct.
• The 1991 Union Budget, presented by Dr. Manmohan Singh, initiated Liberalisation,
Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG) reforms during the Eighth Five Year Plan
(1992–97) to address the balance of payments crisis.Hence Statement III is Correct.
• The Railway Budget was separated from the General Budget in 1924 following the
Acworth Committee recommendations and was merged with the Union Budget in
2017 to improve fiscal efficiency.Hence Statement IV is Correct
Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance Commission:
1. The vertical devolution share of States has been retained at 41% of the divisible pool of
central taxes.
2. It has recommended a new criterion “Contribution to GDP” for horizontal devolution
among States.
3. The criterion of population used for horizontal devolution by the 16th Finance
Commission is based on the 1971 Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correc
Anonymous Quiz
50%
1 and 2 only
15%
2 and 3 only
14%
1 and 3 only
21%
1,2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Vertical devolution refers to the sharing of central taxes between the Centre and the
States.
• The 16th Finance Commission (FC) has retained the States’ share at 41%, the same
level recommended by the 15th Finance Commission.
• This means 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes (like income tax, GST, excise,
etc.) will be transferred to States, while 59% remains with the Centre.OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS ACADEMY RUN BY FORMER CIVIL SERVANTS
• Retaining 41% reflects a balance between States’ demand for higher resources
(many demanded ~50%) and the Centre’s increased expenditure responsibilities,
including national security, infrastructure, and servicing debt.
• This continuity supports predictability and stability in fiscal federalism.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Horizontal devolution deals with how the States’ share (41%) is distributed among
individual States.
The 16th Finance Commission has introduced a new criterion: “Contribution to GDP” in
the horizontal devolution formula.
Purpose of this criterion:
• To recognise and reward States that contribute more to the national economy.
• To address concerns of economically advanced States that earlier formulas focused
heavily on redistribution and equity alone.
• To incentivise economic growth, productivity, and fiscal discipline.
This marks a shift towards a balance between equity (supporting poorer States) and
efficiency/performance (rewarding growth-oriented States). Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The population criterion under the 16th Finance Commission is based on the 2011
Census, not the 1971 Census.
Earlier Finance Commissions used 1971 Census data to avoid penalising States that
successfully controlled population growth.
However, recent Finance Commissions (including the 15th and 16th FCs) have shifted to the
2011 Census to reflect:
• Current demographic realities
• Actual expenditure needs related to health, education, housing, and infrastructure.
To address fairness concerns, the Commission also uses a separate criterion like demographic
performance to reward States that performed well in population control. Hence, statement 3
is incorrect.
Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(FRBM) framework:
1. The FRBM Act, enacted in 2003, provides a statutory framework to ensure fiscal
discipline in India.
2. The 3 % of GSDP borrowing limit on States is enforced under Article 293 of the
Constitution.
3. In the 2026-27 Budget, the Centre aims to maintain a fiscal deficit of 4.3% of GDP and
a debt-to-GDP ratio of 55.6% under the FRBM Act.