Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct: Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution provides that a person shall be
disqualified for being an MP if he/she holds any office of profit under the Government of India
or any State. Exception, Parliament may, by law, declare certain offices as exempt. Similar
provision exists for MLAs under Article 191.
Statement 2 is Correct: Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides,
Conviction with imprisonment of 2 years or more, disqualification and Period of
disqualification, during imprisonment, and Six years after release. Applies equally to MPs and
MLAs. Lily Thomas (2013) strengthened this provision.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) which disqualification
decisions are made by, Speaker of Lok Sabha (for MPs), or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
President’s role (Article 103) applies only to disqualifications other than defection, after
consulting the Election Commission.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: In Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013): The Supreme Court struck
down Section 8(4) of the RP Act, 1951.Section 8(4) allowed sitting legislators to continue in
office after conviction if they filed an appeal within 3 months. The Court held it
unconstitutional and violate of Article 102 & 191. Immediate disqualification upon convictio

With reference to Private Reserve Restoration in wildlife conservation, consider the following
statements:
1. It involves restoration of degraded habitats on privately owned land.
2. It helps in conserving wildlife outside government-notified protected areas.
3. It can support wildlife corridors and reduce human–wildlife con

Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is Correct:
Private Reserve Restoration focuses on reviving forests, grasslands, wetlands, or other
ecosystems on privately owned lands through rewilding, afforestation, and habitat
management.
Statement 2 is Correct:
Many species live or move beyond national parks and sanctuaries. Private reserves help fill
conservation gaps by protecting biodiversity in non-notified areas.
Statement 3 is Correct:
Restored private lands can function as corridors or buffer zones, facilitating animal
movement, reducing habitat fragmentation, and minimising human–wildlife conflict.

With reference to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), consider the
following statements:
1. CDSCO functions under the Directorate General of Health Services in the Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare.
2. CDSCO is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) for drugs and medical devices in
India.
3. CDSCO alone grants manufacturing licences for all categories of drugs in India.
4. CDSCO headquarters is located at FDA Bhawan, Kotla Road, New Delh

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct:
CDSCO works under Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS), Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare.
Statement 2 is Correct:
CDSCO is explicitly called India’s National Regulatory Authority (NRA).
Statement 3 is Incorrect:
Licensing is joint responsibility of Central and State regulators.
CDSCO grants licenses only for certain specialized critical drugs (blood products, vaccines, IV
fluids, sera), not all drugs.
Statement 4 is Correct:
Its headquarter is located at FDA (Food and Drug Administration) Bhawan, Kotla Road, New
Delhi and also has six zonal offices, four sub zonal offices, thirteen Port offices and seven
laboratories spread across the country.

With reference to the Green India Mission (Revised), launched in June 2025, consider the
following statements:
1. The revised mission proposes regeneration of five million hectares through region-
specific landscape projects in ecologically sensitive regions such as the Aravallis,
Western Ghats and the Himalayas.
2. The mission departs from earlier approaches by clearly distinguishing between
monoculture plantations and natural forest regeneration in its operational guidelines.
3. Equating plantations with natural regeneration may have implications for biodiversity
conservation and ecological resilience.

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct:
The Revised Green India Mission (2021–2030) focuses on restoration and saturation of
vulnerable landscapes including the Aravalli ranges, Western Ghats, Indian Himalayan Region,
mangroves, and other ecologically fragile areas by adopting a micro-ecosystem and regionally
conducive approach to landscape restoration.
The mission retains its original target of increasing and improving forest and tree cover on
millions of hectares of land (including 5 million new hectares) while paying special attention to
ecological restoration in sensitive zones.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:
The mission emphasize afforestation, restoration, and improved quality of forest cover, but
there is no clear explicit official distinction in the published guidelines that equates
plantations with natural regeneration or otherwise strictly differentiates them as
separate outcomes. Rather, plantation-based activities such as tree planting on degraded
lands, agroforestry, and enrichment planting are part of the restoration strategy.
So, the statement claiming a departure by clearly distinguishing plantations and natural
regeneration is not correct the official focus remains on forest and tree cover expansion and
landscape restoration strategies, not a categorical operational definition that separates natural
regeneration from plantation outcomes.
Statement 3 is Correct:
Ecological science including global forest assessments shows natural regeneration generally
supports higher biodiversity, more complex ecological structures, greater resilience and
ecosystem services than uniform plantation approaches.
Thus, if plantations are treated as equivalent to natural regeneration in targets or practice, this
could undermine biodiversity goals and ecological resilience a logically valid implication based
on widely recognized ecological principle

With reference to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, consider the following
statements:
1. It seeks to completely eliminate criminal liability under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act,
1940.
2. It expands the scope of compounding of offences under Section 32B of the Act.
3. It was framed with the objective of improving ease of living and doing business.

1) Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is incorrect. The amendment does not remove criminal liability altogether. It
only allows compounding of specified minor or technical offences, meaning prosecution can be
avoided on payment of a prescribed amount. Serious offences continue to attract criminal
prosecution.
Statement 2 is correct. The amendment enlarges the list of offences that can be compounded
by expanding the scope of the relevant section dealing with compounding.
Statement 3 is correct. The stated objective of the amendment is to decriminalize and
rationalize minor offences to improve ease of living and ease of doing business.
Hence, statements 2 and 3 only are correct

With reference to Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), consider the following statements:
1. FTAs necessarily lead to the complete elimination of tariffs on all goods traded between
partner countries.
2. FTAs generally include provisions related to trade in services and protection of
intellectual property rights.
3. FTAs aim to create a predictable and transparent environment for trade and investment.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is Incorrect: FTAs provide for reduction or elimination of tariffs on qualified
goods, not necessarily all goods.
Statement 2 is Correct: FTAs cover services trade and intellectual property protection.
Statement 3 is Correct: FTAs seek to create a predictable and transparent trading and
investment environment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve:
1. It is the first Biosphere Reserve to be notified in India.
2. It spans across the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.
3. It forms a part of the Western Ghats biodiversity hotsp

Statement 1 is correct:
 The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve was established in 1986, making it India’s first
biosphere reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
 Its early notification reflects the high ecological value of the region and the urgent need
for conservation due to increasing human pressures.
Statement 2 is correct:
 The reserve extends over three southern states:
o Tamil Nadu (largest share),
o Kerala, and
o Karnataka.
 It includes several well-known protected areas such as Bandipur National Park,
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, and Nagarhole National
Park, ensuring landscape-level conservation.
Statement 3 is correct:
 The Nilgiris lie within the Western Ghats, which is recognized globally as a
biodiversity hotspot due to:
o Extremely high species richness and endemism, and
o Severe threats from habitat loss and fragmentation.
 The reserve supports diverse ecosystems including tropical evergreen forests, moist
deciduous forests, shola–grassland complexes, and montane forests.
4

Consider the following statements:
1. Only the Bar Council of India has the authority to designate an Advocate as ‘Senior
Advocate’.
2. Only the ‘Advocates-on-Record’ are entitled to file a matter or document before the
Supreme Court.
3. Only the ‘Senior Advocates’ and the ‘Advocates-on-Record’ can argue a matter in the
Supreme Court