With reference to Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. IPOs require prior approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
2. Companies can raise funds through IPOs only for expansion and not for debt repayment.
3. Follow-on Public Offerings (FPOs) are available only to unlisted companies.
4. High domestic savings inflows can support IPO markets.

Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is Correct:
In India, any company planning to launch an IPO must file a Draft Red Herring Prospectus
(DRHP) with SEBI.
SEBI scrutinizes disclosures, compliance with regulations, and investor protection norms before
granting approval.
Without SEBI’s clearance, an IPO cannot be launched.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
IAS ACADEMY RUN BY FORMER CIVIL SERVANTS
IPO proceeds can be used for multiple purposes, including:
• Expansion and capital expenditure
• Debt repayment or deleveraging
• Working capital requirements
Recent IPOs have explicitly mentioned repayment of borrowings as a key objective.
Statement 3 is Incorrect:
FPOs are issued only by already listed companies, not unlisted ones.
Purpose of FPO:
• Raise additional capital after listing
• Increase public shareholding
Unlisted companies raise capital through IPOs, not FPOs.

With reference to the Somnath Temple, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva.
2. It is located on the western coast of Gujarat, near the Arabian Sea.
3. The present temple structure was completed in the medieval period.

Which of the following countries were founding members of OPEC?
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. Kuwait
4. Saudi Arabia
5. Venezuela

Answer: (C)
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent intergovernmental
organization established in September 1960 at the Baghdad Conference. Its five founding
members:
1. Iran,
2. Iraq,
3. Kuwait,
4. Saudi Arabia,
5. and Venezuel

With reference to the ‘Viksit Bharat – G Ram G’ law, consider the following statements:
1. It increases the employment guarantee under MGNREGA from 100 days to 125 days.
2. Workers are entitled to unemployment allowance if work is not provided within the
stipulated period.
3. Interest is payable if wages are delayed beyond 15 days.
4. Administrative expenditure under the scheme has been reduced to curb corruption.

Answer: (A)
Employment Guarantee
The Viksit Bharat – G RAM G Act increases the guaranteed employment days from 100 under
MGNREGA to 125 days per financial year for rural households volunteering for unskilled manual
work. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Unemployment Allowance
Workers remain entitled to an unemployment allowance if employment is not provided within 15
days of demand, consistent with MGNREGA provisions. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Wage Delay Penalty
Wages must be paid weekly or within 15 days of work completion, with interest (such as 0.05%
of wages) payable if delayed beyond 15 days. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Administrative Expenditure
Administrative expenditure ceiling has been raised from 6% to 9% of total costs to support timely
payments and system efficiency, not reduced. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.

SAMPANN is related to which of the following?
(a) Management of telecom spectrum
(b) Pension management system for DoT pensioners
(c) Digital payment platform for MSMEs
(d) Skill development portal for telecom workers

Answer: (B)
SAMPANN (System for Accounting and Management of Pension) is an integrated online pension
management system developed specifically for pensioners of the Department of
Telecommunications (DoT). It provides a single digital platform for processing, sanctioning,
and direct disbursement of pension into bank accounts, along with features such as online
grievance redressal, digital profile management, and transaction records. The system
improves transparency, efficiency, and ease of access for telecom retirees. Therefore, option B is
correct

Consider the following statements regarding ASTER data acquisition:
1. ASTER is a tasking-based sensor and does not continuously acquire global data.
2. ASTER data is especially useful for lithological and geothermal studies.
3. ASTER has a fixed revisit cycle similar to Landsat.

Answers: (A)
ASTER is a multispectral remote sensing instrument mounted on NASA’s Terra (EOS-AM1)
satellite, launched in 1999. It was jointly developed by NASA and Japan (METI/JAXA) to observe
Earth’s land surface, atmosphere, and oceans.
Statement 1: Correct. According to NASA, unlike many Earth-observing instruments, ASTER
does not continuously collect data as it orbits Earth. Instead, it collects about 8 minutes of data
per orbit based on scheduled acquisition requests meaning it is tasking-based rather than
continuous.
Statement 2: Correct. ASTER’s thermal infrared (TIR) and shortwave infrared (SWIR) spectral
bands are widely used in geology for mineral mapping, lithological discrimination, and
surface thermal features making it highly valuable for lithological and geothermal studies.
While the official NASA pages emphasize mapping surface temperature and emissivity, these
spectral and thermal capabilities are core to geological applications in peer-reviewed science and
documented user handbooks. (Mineral and lithological applications are widely referenced in
remote sensing literature based on ASTER’s TIR/SWIR capabilities.)
Statement 3: Incorrect. ASTER does not follow a fixed revisit schedule like Landsat (which uses
a defined World Reference System grid and periodic global passes). ASTER’s acquisitions are
scheduled based on requests/interests rather than fixed orbit-based revisit planning. Its revisit
varies by location and task prioritization rather than a set cycle like Landsat’s 16-day repeat
coverage.
4

With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following
statements:
1. NBFCs are allowed to accept demand deposits from the public.
2. NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system.
3. Deposits placed with NBFCs are covered under deposit insurance provided by DICGC.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1: incorrect
NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (such as savings or current accounts withdrawable on
demand).
Statement 2: correct
NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn
on itself;
Statement 3: incorrect
Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not
available to depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

With reference to the disqualification of Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative
Assemblies (MLAs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. A Member of Parliament can be disqualified for holding an office of profit under the
Government of India or a State, unless such office is exempted by Parliament by law.
2. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted and sentenced to
imprisonment for two years or more is disqualified during the period of imprisonment
and for six years thereafter.
3. In cases of disqualification of MPs under the Tenth Schedule, the President of India
decides the matter after consulting the Election Commission of India.
4. The Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas case (2013) upheld the constitutional validity of
Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.