Answer: (D)
India’s Malaria Elimination Goals (2027 & 2030)- Zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027
• India’s National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination (2023–27) clearly states the
country’s commitment to achieve zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027.
Malaria elimination by 2030 aligns with WHO Global Strategy
• The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016–2030) was developed in
line with the WHO Global Technical Strategy (GTS) for Malaria 2016–2030. It
explicitly sets the goal of eliminating malaria nationwide (zero indigenous cases) by
2030
Intermediate Objective of 2027
• The framework’s objectives include interrupting indigenous transmission nationwide by
2027, ahead of the final 2030 elimination milestone.Thus Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
Operational Research as an Enabler
Operational research is an enabler, not a constraint
• India’s strategy emphasise on strengthening surveillance, monitoring, data use and
research as key enablers for accelerating elimination. Operational research is treated as
a critical support intervention for targeted action and innovation, not a barrier.
Anopheles stephensi — Mosquito Vector
Invasive species and urban adaptation
• WHO classifies Anopheles stephensi as a highly competent malaria vector capable of
spreading in urban environments breeding in man-made containers common in cities
and posing a major threat to malaria control.
Efficient vector for Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax
• WHO’s vector alert explicitly describes Anopheles stephensi as efficient at transmitting
both key human malaria parasites, P. falciparum and P. vivax.
Breeding in artificial containers
• Scientific literature shows Anopheles stephensi prefers breeding in man-made water
containers and urban habitats, unlike many traditional rural vectors.

Consider the following statements regarding Public–Private Partnership (PPP) models in India:
1. Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears traffic risk, while the
private developer bears construction and operational risks.
2. In the BOT–Annuity model, revenue risk is completely transferred to users through toll
collection.
3. Lease–Develop–Operate (LDO) model is a preferred instrument under the National
Monetization Pipeline (NMP).
4. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) can be provided up to 40% of the total project cost for PPP
projects that are economically justified but commercially unviable.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is Correct: “Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears
traffic risk, while the private developer bears construction and operational risks.”
• In HAM, the government:
• Pays 40% of project cost during construction
• Pays fixed annuities post-construction
• Hence:
• Traffic / revenue risk → Government
• Construction & O&M risk → Private player

Statement 2 is Incorrect: “In the BOT–Annuity model, revenue risk is completely transferred
to users through toll collection.”
• In BOT–Annuity:
• The government pays fixed annuities to the private player
• Payments are not linked to toll collection
• Hence:
• Revenue risk is borne by the government, not users

Statement 3 is Correct: “Lease–Develop–Operate (LDO) model is a preferred instrument under
the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP).”
• NMP focuses on asset monetisation, not greenfield creation
• LDO involves:
• Leasing existing public assets
• Private sector upgrades and operates them
• Common in:
• Roads
• Airports
• Warehousing
• Power transmission

Statement 4 is Correct: “Viability Gap Funding (VGF) can be provided up to 40% of the total
project cost for PPP projects that are economically justified but commercially unviable.”
• As per Government of India norms:
• Up to 40% of project cost
• Used to make socially beneficial projects viable
• Applies mainly to:
• Infrastructure
• Urban services
• Transport

Recently expanded under revamped VGF Scheme (2023 onwards)

Consider the following statements, the Anti-Terror Conference emphasized the need for:
1. Strengthening cooperation between intelligence agencies and State police.
2. Counter-narratives to prevent online radicalisation.
3. Dilution of privacy safeguards to ensure national security.

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct:
The conference emphasized strengthening cooperation between intelligence agencies and state
police through a common Anti-Terrorist Squad (ATS) structure, mandatory use of NATGRID
and NIDAAN, active Multi-Agency Centre participation, and a "Duty to Share" principle over
"Need to Know."
Statement 2 is Correct:
It highlighted technology-driven intelligence sharing and uniformity to counter emerging
threats, including better data integration to uncover terror links, though counter-narratives for
online radicalisation were not explicitly mentioned in key addresses.
Statement 3 is Incorrect:
No mention of diluting privacy safeguards occurred; focus remained on operational uniformity,
technology frameworks, and coordination without privacy dilution references

With reference to digital platforms for tracing unclaimed financial assets in India, Consider the
following pairs:
List–I (Portal) List–II (Concerned Asset)
A. UDGAM Portal 1. Unclaimed dividends and shares
B. Bima Bharosa Portal 2. Unclaimed mutual fund investments
C. MITRA Portal 3. Unclaimed bank deposits
D. IEPFA Portal 4. Unclaimed insurance proceeds

Answer: (D)
Digital Platforms for Tracing Unclaimed Assets
1. Unclaimed Bank Deposits – UDGAM Portal
UDGAM is an RBI portal that enables a centralized search for unclaimed bank deposits across
banks, even after transfer to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund DEA Fund, with no
time limit for claiming by depositors or heirs.
2. Insurance Proceeds – Bima Bharosa Portal
Bima Bharosa is a portal to trace unclaimed insurance proceeds, which remain claimable by
policyholders or heirs even after transfer to the Senior Citizens’ Welfare Fund SCWF, with
claims routed through the concerned insurer.
3. Mutual Fund Investments – MITRA Portal
The Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant (MITRA), hosted on MF Central,
helps investors trace unclaimed or inactive mutual fund investments, which remain claimable
through the concerned Asset Management Company (AMC) or Registrar and Transfer Agent
(RTA) even after transfer to designated unclaimed schemes.
4. Dividends and Shares – IEPFA Portal
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) portal enables individuals to
trace and claim unclaimed dividends and shares transferred after seven years, with no fee and
no time limit for filing claims.

With reference to the concept of Secularism in the Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. Indian secularism implies a strict separation between State and religion.
2. The Indian State can provide financial assistance for the maintenance of religious
institutions.
3. Secularism was explicitly inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1: Incorrect
In the Indian context, secularism does not imply a strict wall of separation (like the
Western/European model), where State and religion never interact. The Indian Constitution
allows positive engagement with religions, and the State is required to maintain equal distance
from all religions rather than complete separation.
Indian secularism means:
• Equal treatment of all religions by the State.
• The State is neutral and not hostile to religion.
• The State can interact with religious institutions in limited and regulated ways (e.g.,
regulation under Articles 25–28).
Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. . Statement 2: Correct
While Article 27 of the Constitution prohibits the State from compelling citizens to fund
any particular religion through taxation, it does not entirely bar the State from providing
financial assistance to religious institutions as long as it does not favour one religion over
another. States can give financial support for infrastructure, cultural or social welfare
purposes (for example, temple renovation funds, grants, etc.), provided such schemes are applied
equally across religious groups.
Additionally, the Constitution allows the State to make laws regulating secular activities
associated with religious practice (Article 25).
Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Correct
The word “Secular” was not part of the original Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted in
1950. It was introduced into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
which amended the description of the Republic to: “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic.” Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.

Lake Chad region is often in news due to insurgency-related issues. Lake Chad is bordered by
which of the following countries?
1. Nigeria
2. Niger
3. Chad
4. Cameroon

Answer: (C)
Lake Chad is a transboundary freshwater lake in north-central Africa. It is bordered by four
countries:
Nigeria – southwestern shore (Borno State)
Niger – northwestern shore
Chad – eastern and northeastern shore
Cameroon – southern shore
Because it lies at the junction of four countries, weak border management and difficult terrain
have made the Lake Chad basin vulnerable to cross-border insurgency and terrorism.
The Lake Chad region faces Islamist insurgency from Boko Haram and ISWAP, exploiting porous
borders, livelihood stress and weak governance, triggering violence, displacement and regional
instability, worsened by post-2011 Libya arms proliferation.

Consider the following statements regarding different types of fog:
1. Radiation fog is most likely to form under clear skies, calm wind conditions, and strong
surface temperature inversion.
2. Steam fog forms when warm, moist air passes over a colder surface, leading to
condensation due to adiabatic cooling.
3. Advection radiation fog is commonly observed along coasts where warm ocean currents
meet cold ocean currents.
4. Upslope fog involves condensation due to adiabatic cooling of air forced to ascend along
a terrain.
5. Frontal fog is more frequently associated with warm fronts than with cold fronts.

Answer A
Statement 1 is correct: “Radiation fog is most likely to form under clear skies, calm wind
conditions, and strong surface temperature inversion.”
• Radiation fog forms due to radiative cooling of the ground at night.
• Clear skies allow maximum heat loss, calm winds prevent mixing, and a temperature
inversion traps cold air near the surface.
• This is classic winter fog in plains and valleys.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: “Steam fog forms when warm, moist air passes over a colder surface,
leading to condensation due to adiabatic cooling.”
• This describes advection fog, not steam fog.
• Steam fog forms when cold air moves over warm water, causing evaporation first, then
condensation as moist air mixes with cold air above.
• Adiabatic cooling is NOT the primary mechanism in steam fog.
Statement 3 is correct: “Advectional radiation fog is commonly observed along coasts where
warm ocean currents meet cold ocean currents.”
• Warm, moist air advected over a cold surface → cooling + condensation.
• Famous examples:
• Newfoundland (Gulf Stream + Labrador Current)
• Japan (Kuroshio + Oyashio)

Term “advectional radiation fog” highlights horizontal movement + surface cooling.
Statement 4 is correct: “Upslope fog involves condensation due to adiabatic cooling of air forced
to ascend along a terrain.”

• Moist air rises along slopes → expands → cools adiabatically → saturation → fog.
• Seen in hilly and mountainous regions.

Statement 5 is correct: “Frontal fog is more frequently associated with warm fronts than with
cold fronts.”

• In warm fronts, warm moist air gradually overrides cold air, leading to
prolonged cooling and condensation near the surface.
• Cold fronts cause rapid uplift → more precipitation, less fog persistence.

Consider the following statements regarding INSV Kaundinya:
1. It is an indigenously built traditional stitched sailing vessel of the Indian Navy.
2. It has been constructed using modern composite materials to improve endurance.
3. Its maiden overseas voyage retraces ancient maritime routes between India’s western
coast and Oman.