Consider the following statements:
1. The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) aims to develop a resilient supply chain.
2. NCMM covers the entire value chain, including exploration, mining, processing, recycling
and stockpiling of critical minerals.
3. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has been assigned a key role in exploration of critical
minerals under the mission.
4. All critical minerals are under the legislative and administrative control of State
Governments.

Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is correct: The NCMM is designed to secure a resilient and self-reliant ecosystem
for critical minerals, reducing import dependency and ensuring a steady supply for clean energy
and advanced technologies.
Statement 2 is correct: NCMM adopts a value-chain approach, covering exploration, mining,
processing, recycling, and stockpiling of critical minerals.
Statement 3 is correct: GSI is tasked with a key role of conducting hundreds of exploration
projects for critical minerals as part of the NCMM.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Mines and Minerals Development & Regulation (Amendment)
Act,2025 was amended to give the Central Government exclusive powers to auction 24 critical
minerals, ensuring better control over these resources at the national level. While state
governments have powers over minor minerals, critical minerals are under central control for
auction and regulatory purposes

With reference to the Jnanpith Award, consider the following statements:
1. It is the highest literary honour in India and is given annually for outstanding
contribution to Indian literature in languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution only.
2. The first Jnanpith Award was conferred upon G. Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his
Malayalam poetry collection Odakkuzhal.
3. The award can be given posthumously and may also be conferred more than once on the
same author.

Answer B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary honour in India, given
annually for outstanding creative writing in any of the Indian languages mentioned in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution and in English also
Statement 2 is Correct: The first recipient of the Jnanpith Award was Malayalam poet G.
Sankara Kurup, who received it in 1965 for his poetry collection Odakkuzhal.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The award cannot be given posthumously. A writer who has
received the award once is not eligible again. Only living Indian citizens can be proposed for
the award.

Consider the following regarding Gold ETFs:
1. Gold ETFs are backed by physical gold stored with custodians.
2. The price of Gold ETFs in India is influenced by both international gold prices and
exchange rate movements.

Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is Correct:
In India, Gold ETFs hold physical gold of prescribed purity (generally 99.5%) which is stored
with SEBI-approved custodians. Each unit represents a specific quantity of gold.
Statement 2 is Correct:
Domestic gold prices reflect:
• International gold prices (quoted in USD), and
• USD–INR exchange rate fluctuations, both of which directly affect Gold ETF valuations.

Consider the following statements:
1. India’s target of achieving zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027 aligns with the World
Health Organization’s global malaria elimination framework.
2. Operational research has been identified as a key enabler, rather than a constraint, in
accelerating malaria elimination in India.
3. Anopheles stephensi is an invasive mosquito species well adapted to urban
environments and is an efficient vector of both Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium
vivax.

Answer: (D)
India’s Malaria Elimination Goals (2027 & 2030)- Zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027
• India’s National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination (2023–27) clearly states the
country’s commitment to achieve zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027.
Malaria elimination by 2030 aligns with WHO Global Strategy
• The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016–2030) was developed in
line with the WHO Global Technical Strategy (GTS) for Malaria 2016–2030. It
explicitly sets the goal of eliminating malaria nationwide (zero indigenous cases) by
2030
Intermediate Objective of 2027
• The framework’s objectives include interrupting indigenous transmission nationwide by
2027, ahead of the final 2030 elimination milestone.Thus Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
Operational Research as an Enabler
Operational research is an enabler, not a constraint
• India’s strategy emphasise on strengthening surveillance, monitoring, data use and
research as key enablers for accelerating elimination. Operational research is treated as
a critical support intervention for targeted action and innovation, not a barrier.
Anopheles stephensi — Mosquito Vector
Invasive species and urban adaptation
• WHO classifies Anopheles stephensi as a highly competent malaria vector capable of
spreading in urban environments breeding in man-made containers common in cities
and posing a major threat to malaria control.
Efficient vector for Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax
• WHO’s vector alert explicitly describes Anopheles stephensi as efficient at transmitting
both key human malaria parasites, P. falciparum and P. vivax.
Breeding in artificial containers
• Scientific literature shows Anopheles stephensi prefers breeding in man-made water
containers and urban habitats, unlike many traditional rural vectors.

Consider the following statements regarding Public–Private Partnership (PPP) models in India:
1. Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears traffic risk, while the
private developer bears construction and operational risks.
2. In the BOT–Annuity model, revenue risk is completely transferred to users through toll
collection.
3. Lease–Develop–Operate (LDO) model is a preferred instrument under the National
Monetization Pipeline (NMP).
4. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) can be provided up to 40% of the total project cost for PPP
projects that are economically justified but commercially unviable.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is Correct: “Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears
traffic risk, while the private developer bears construction and operational risks.”
• In HAM, the government:
• Pays 40% of project cost during construction
• Pays fixed annuities post-construction
• Hence:
• Traffic / revenue risk → Government
• Construction & O&M risk → Private player

Statement 2 is Incorrect: “In the BOT–Annuity model, revenue risk is completely transferred
to users through toll collection.”
• In BOT–Annuity:
• The government pays fixed annuities to the private player
• Payments are not linked to toll collection
• Hence:
• Revenue risk is borne by the government, not users

Statement 3 is Correct: “Lease–Develop–Operate (LDO) model is a preferred instrument under
the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP).”
• NMP focuses on asset monetisation, not greenfield creation
• LDO involves:
• Leasing existing public assets
• Private sector upgrades and operates them
• Common in:
• Roads
• Airports
• Warehousing
• Power transmission

Statement 4 is Correct: “Viability Gap Funding (VGF) can be provided up to 40% of the total
project cost for PPP projects that are economically justified but commercially unviable.”
• As per Government of India norms:
• Up to 40% of project cost
• Used to make socially beneficial projects viable
• Applies mainly to:
• Infrastructure
• Urban services
• Transport

Recently expanded under revamped VGF Scheme (2023 onwards)

Consider the following statements, the Anti-Terror Conference emphasized the need for:
1. Strengthening cooperation between intelligence agencies and State police.
2. Counter-narratives to prevent online radicalisation.
3. Dilution of privacy safeguards to ensure national security.

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct:
The conference emphasized strengthening cooperation between intelligence agencies and state
police through a common Anti-Terrorist Squad (ATS) structure, mandatory use of NATGRID
and NIDAAN, active Multi-Agency Centre participation, and a "Duty to Share" principle over
"Need to Know."
Statement 2 is Correct:
It highlighted technology-driven intelligence sharing and uniformity to counter emerging
threats, including better data integration to uncover terror links, though counter-narratives for
online radicalisation were not explicitly mentioned in key addresses.
Statement 3 is Incorrect:
No mention of diluting privacy safeguards occurred; focus remained on operational uniformity,
technology frameworks, and coordination without privacy dilution references

With reference to digital platforms for tracing unclaimed financial assets in India, Consider the
following pairs:
List–I (Portal) List–II (Concerned Asset)
A. UDGAM Portal 1. Unclaimed dividends and shares
B. Bima Bharosa Portal 2. Unclaimed mutual fund investments
C. MITRA Portal 3. Unclaimed bank deposits
D. IEPFA Portal 4. Unclaimed insurance proceeds

Answer: (D)
Digital Platforms for Tracing Unclaimed Assets
1. Unclaimed Bank Deposits – UDGAM Portal
UDGAM is an RBI portal that enables a centralized search for unclaimed bank deposits across
banks, even after transfer to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund DEA Fund, with no
time limit for claiming by depositors or heirs.
2. Insurance Proceeds – Bima Bharosa Portal
Bima Bharosa is a portal to trace unclaimed insurance proceeds, which remain claimable by
policyholders or heirs even after transfer to the Senior Citizens’ Welfare Fund SCWF, with
claims routed through the concerned insurer.
3. Mutual Fund Investments – MITRA Portal
The Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant (MITRA), hosted on MF Central,
helps investors trace unclaimed or inactive mutual fund investments, which remain claimable
through the concerned Asset Management Company (AMC) or Registrar and Transfer Agent
(RTA) even after transfer to designated unclaimed schemes.
4. Dividends and Shares – IEPFA Portal
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) portal enables individuals to
trace and claim unclaimed dividends and shares transferred after seven years, with no fee and
no time limit for filing claims.