Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: Under AI-ECTA, India has agreed to eliminate or phase out tariffs on the
majority of Australian goods exports, with tariffs on over 85% of Australia’s goods exports
eliminated on entry into force, and tariff elimination commitments rising to cover 90% by value
by 1 January 2026 through further phased reductions.
Statement 2 is also correct According to the Australian Government’s Department of Foreign
Affairs and Trade, 96 % of imports from India into Australia are tariff-free immediately upon
AI-ECTA’s entry into force, with this rising to almost 100 % by 1 January 2026.
Statement 3 (Incorrect) AI-ECTA is described as a “stepping stone” towards a more ambitious
Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA). Negotiations on CECA are ongoing
and aim to build on the existing outcomes of AI-ECTA (e.g., deeper market access in goods,
services, investment, and other areas). There is no official language calling AI-ECTA a
permanent, comprehensive or exhaustive final framework in fact, AI-ECTA emphasise that it
is an interim or early-harvest agreement leading to CECA

With reference to maternal mortality in India, consider the following statements:
1. Institutional deliveries play a significant role in reducing maternal mortality.
2. Janani Suraksha Yojana provides conditional cash transfers to promote safe delivery.

Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is Correct:
Deliveries conducted in health institutions ensure the presence of skilled birth attendants,
availability of emergency obstetric care, timely management of complications like hemorrhage
or sepsis, and proper postnatal care. This significantly reduces maternal deaths in India.
Statement 2 is Correct:
JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission that offers cash
incentives to pregnant women (especially from poor households) for institutional deliveries,
thereby encouraging safe childbirth and reducing maternal mortality.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quality Council of India (QCI).
1. The Quality Council of India is a statutory body established under an Act of Parliament
to promote quality standards across sectors.
2. The Quality Council of India was set up jointly by the Government of India and Indian
industry to establish and operate national accreditation structures.

Answer (B)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Quality Council of India is not a statutory body. It is an
autonomous, non-profit organisation, not created through an Act of Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: QCI was established in 1997 as a joint initiative of the Government
of India and Indian industry (represented by ASSOCHAM, CII and FICCI) to create a national
accreditation and quality infrastructure.

Consider the following statements:
1. The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) aims to develop a resilient supply chain.
2. NCMM covers the entire value chain, including exploration, mining, processing, recycling
and stockpiling of critical minerals.
3. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has been assigned a key role in exploration of critical
minerals under the mission.
4. All critical minerals are under the legislative and administrative control of State
Governments.

Answer: (C)
Statement 1 is correct: The NCMM is designed to secure a resilient and self-reliant ecosystem
for critical minerals, reducing import dependency and ensuring a steady supply for clean energy
and advanced technologies.
Statement 2 is correct: NCMM adopts a value-chain approach, covering exploration, mining,
processing, recycling, and stockpiling of critical minerals.
Statement 3 is correct: GSI is tasked with a key role of conducting hundreds of exploration
projects for critical minerals as part of the NCMM.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Mines and Minerals Development & Regulation (Amendment)
Act,2025 was amended to give the Central Government exclusive powers to auction 24 critical
minerals, ensuring better control over these resources at the national level. While state
governments have powers over minor minerals, critical minerals are under central control for
auction and regulatory purposes

With reference to the Jnanpith Award, consider the following statements:
1. It is the highest literary honour in India and is given annually for outstanding
contribution to Indian literature in languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution only.
2. The first Jnanpith Award was conferred upon G. Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his
Malayalam poetry collection Odakkuzhal.
3. The award can be given posthumously and may also be conferred more than once on the
same author.

Answer B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary honour in India, given
annually for outstanding creative writing in any of the Indian languages mentioned in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution and in English also
Statement 2 is Correct: The first recipient of the Jnanpith Award was Malayalam poet G.
Sankara Kurup, who received it in 1965 for his poetry collection Odakkuzhal.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The award cannot be given posthumously. A writer who has
received the award once is not eligible again. Only living Indian citizens can be proposed for
the award.

Consider the following regarding Gold ETFs:
1. Gold ETFs are backed by physical gold stored with custodians.
2. The price of Gold ETFs in India is influenced by both international gold prices and
exchange rate movements.

Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is Correct:
In India, Gold ETFs hold physical gold of prescribed purity (generally 99.5%) which is stored
with SEBI-approved custodians. Each unit represents a specific quantity of gold.
Statement 2 is Correct:
Domestic gold prices reflect:
• International gold prices (quoted in USD), and
• USD–INR exchange rate fluctuations, both of which directly affect Gold ETF valuations.

Consider the following statements:
1. India’s target of achieving zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027 aligns with the World
Health Organization’s global malaria elimination framework.
2. Operational research has been identified as a key enabler, rather than a constraint, in
accelerating malaria elimination in India.
3. Anopheles stephensi is an invasive mosquito species well adapted to urban
environments and is an efficient vector of both Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium
vivax.

Answer: (D)
India’s Malaria Elimination Goals (2027 & 2030)- Zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027
• India’s National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination (2023–27) clearly states the
country’s commitment to achieve zero indigenous malaria cases by 2027.
Malaria elimination by 2030 aligns with WHO Global Strategy
• The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016–2030) was developed in
line with the WHO Global Technical Strategy (GTS) for Malaria 2016–2030. It
explicitly sets the goal of eliminating malaria nationwide (zero indigenous cases) by
2030
Intermediate Objective of 2027
• The framework’s objectives include interrupting indigenous transmission nationwide by
2027, ahead of the final 2030 elimination milestone.Thus Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
Operational Research as an Enabler
Operational research is an enabler, not a constraint
• India’s strategy emphasise on strengthening surveillance, monitoring, data use and
research as key enablers for accelerating elimination. Operational research is treated as
a critical support intervention for targeted action and innovation, not a barrier.
Anopheles stephensi — Mosquito Vector
Invasive species and urban adaptation
• WHO classifies Anopheles stephensi as a highly competent malaria vector capable of
spreading in urban environments breeding in man-made containers common in cities
and posing a major threat to malaria control.
Efficient vector for Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax
• WHO’s vector alert explicitly describes Anopheles stephensi as efficient at transmitting
both key human malaria parasites, P. falciparum and P. vivax.
Breeding in artificial containers
• Scientific literature shows Anopheles stephensi prefers breeding in man-made water
containers and urban habitats, unlike many traditional rural vectors.

Consider the following statements regarding Public–Private Partnership (PPP) models in India:
1. Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears traffic risk, while the
private developer bears construction and operational risks.
2. In the BOT–Annuity model, revenue risk is completely transferred to users through toll
collection.
3. Lease–Develop–Operate (LDO) model is a preferred instrument under the National
Monetization Pipeline (NMP).
4. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) can be provided up to 40% of the total project cost for PPP
projects that are economically justified but commercially unviable.