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Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
23%
1 and 2 only
60%
1, 2 and 4 only
10%
2 and 3 only
7%
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is Correct: The NCDRC was established in 1988 under the Consumer
Protection Act, 1986. It has original jurisdiction in consumer complaints where the value
exceeds ₹2 crore (as per the 1986 Act framework).
Statement 2 is Correct: Under Section 23 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, any
person aggrieved by an order of the NCDRC may file an appeal directly to the Supreme Court
within 30 days. This is a statutory appeal, not discretionary like Special Leave Petition (SLP).
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Judicial review of legislative actions is a constitutional power,
exercised only by constitutional courts. The NCDRC, being a statutory quasi-judicial body,
cannot review or invalidate parliamentary legislation, even if consumer rights are involved.
Statement 4 is Correct: In India, judicial review is vested in: High Courts under Articles
226 & 227 and Supreme Court under Articles 32 & 136. Statutory tribunals like the NCDRC
can adjudicate disputes but cannot exercise judicial review in the constitutional sense.
With reference to the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act,
2025, consider the following statements:
1. The Act provides a statutory guarantee of not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in a financial year.
2. Wage employment under the Act is limited to unskilled manual work voluntarily undertaken by adult members of rural households.
3. States are empowered to permanently reduce the annual employment guarantee during peak agricultural seasons.
4. Wages must be paid weekly or, in any case, within fifteen days of completion of work.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
51%
1, 2 and 4 only
15%
1 and 3 only
11%
2 and 4 only
23%
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct: The Act provides a statutory guarantee of not less than 125 days
of wage employment per rural household per financial year. This is an explicit
enhancement over the 100-day guarantee under MGNREGA, 2005, and is clearly stated in
Section 5(1) of the Act.
Statement 2 is Correct: Employment under the Act is available to adult members of rural
households who voluntarily undertake unskilled manual work. This retains the core design
of the earlier MGNREGA framework and is reaffirmed in the new Act.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: States are not empowered to permanently reduce the annual
employment guarantee. The Act only allows States to notify an aggregated pause period of up
to 60 days in a financial year (Section 6) to manage agricultural peak seasons. Importantly,
the full 125-day guarantee remains intact and must be provided during the remaining
period.
Statement 4 is Correct: The Act mandates that wages must be paid on a weekly basis or, in
any case, within fifteen days of completion of work. If wages are delayed beyond this
period, delay compensation is payable, reinforcing wage security (Section 5(3) and Schedule
II).
With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) platform, consider the following
statements:
1. GeM is an online platform for procurement of goods and services by government ministries, departments, and public sector undertakings.
2. It is operated by the Ministry of MSME.
3. Procurement through GeM is mandatory for all purchases made by government entities, irrespective of value.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
52%
1 only
28%
1 and 2 only
10%
3 only
10%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct:
GeM is a national online platform for procurement of goods and services by government
ministries, departments, PSUs, autonomous bodies, etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
GeM is operated by GeM SPV under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the
Ministry of MSME.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Procurement through GeM is not mandatory for all purchases irrespective of value.
There are exceptions and thresholds as per General Financial Rules (GFR).
BlueBird Block-2 satellites, are primarily associated with which of the following objectives?
(a) Earth observation for climate monitoring
(b) Navigation and positioning services
(c) Direct-to-mobile broadband communication
(d) Deep space scientific exploration
Answer: (C)
• BlueBird Block-2 satellites are developed by AST SpaceMobile with the objective of
providing direct cellular connectivity from space to ordinary smartphones.
• Unlike conventional communication satellites that require special satellite phones or
ground terminals, BlueBird Block-2 satellites function like cell towers in space,
enabling 4G/5G voice, text, and data services directly to standard mobile phones.
• They are not meant for Earth observation, navigation (like GPS), or deep-space
research, but specifically to bridge mobile network coverage gaps in remote, rural,
oceanic, and disaster-prone areas where terrestrial towers are absent.
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) under the Companies Act, 2013,
consider the following statements:
1. CSR spending by eligible companies is at least 2% of the average net profits of the
immediately preceding three financial years.
2. The CSR obligation applies only to private sector companies and does not extend to
public sector undertakings.
3. Expenditure incurred on employee welfare activities exclusively for company
employees is not considered as CSR expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
56%
1 and 3 only
19%
1 only
14%
2 and 3 only
12%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: CSR spending by eligible companies is fixed at a minimum of 2% of
the average net profits of the immediately preceding three financial years, as mandated
under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013. The use of an average profit base ensures
consistency in CSR obligations and prevents distortion due to short-term profit fluctuations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The CSR framework in India is sector-neutral and applies to both
private companies and public sector undertakings (PSUs), provided they meet the
prescribed financial thresholds. Excluding PSUs from CSR would defeat the statutory intent,
especially since PSUs are major contributors to CSR spending.
Statement 3 is correct: CSR activities are intended to generate social benefits beyond a
company’s internal stakeholders. Consequently, expenditures incurred exclusively for
employee welfare such as staff amenities or benefits limited to employees are explicitly
excluded from CSR under the CSR Rules.
The recognition of the right to live in a healthy and pollution-free environment as part of Article
21 of the Constitution reflects which of the following constitutional developments?
(a) Expansion of Directive Principles into enforceable rights
(b) Judicial interpretation of the right to life to include environmental quality
(c) Transfer of environmental regulation from legislature to judiciary
(d) Conversion of Fundamental Duties into Fundamental Rights
Answer: (B)
The Supreme Court of India has consistently held that Article 21 (Right to Life) is not limited
to mere animal existence but includes the right to live with human dignity and quality of life.
Using this expansive and purposive interpretation, the Court brought environmental quality
within the scope of Article 21.
This constitutional development is reflected in authoritative Supreme Court judgments:
• In Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P. (1985), the Court for the
first time recognised that environmental degradation directly affects the right to life
under Article 21.
• In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Court explicitly held that the right to live
in a pollution-free environment is part of the fundamental right to life under Article
21.
With reference to the electric flying taxi SYL-X1 developed by Sarla Aviation, consider the
following statements:
1. SYL-X1 is an electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) aircraft under private
sector development in India.
2. eVTOL aircraft use distributed electric propulsion systems instead of a single main
engine.
3. eVTOL aircraft can operate without any runway due to vertical take-off and landing
capability.
4. Current eVTOL designs completely eliminate the need for aerodynamic lift
generated by wings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
19%
1 and 2 only
55%
1, 2 and 3
6%
2, 3 and 4
20%
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: SYL-X1 is an electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing (eVTOL) aircraft
developed by Bengaluru-based private firm Sarla Aviation. It is intended for urban air mobility
as an electric flying taxi, marking a significant private-sector innovation in India’s civil aviation
ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct: Most eVTOL aircraft, including SYL-X1-type designs, use Distributed
Electric Propulsion (DEP). Instead of one large engine, multiple electric motors and rotors are
placed across the airframe.
This improves:
• Redundancy and safety (failure of one motor does not cause loss of control),
• Energy efficiency, and
• Noise reduction, which is crucial for urban operations.
Statement 3 is correct: eVTOL aircraft are capable of vertical take-off and landing, allowing
them to operate from vertiports, rooftops, or compact urban spaces. Hence, no conventional
runway is required, unlike fixed-wing airplanes. This feature makes eVTOLs suitable for
congested city environments.
Statement 4 is incorrect: This is a common misconception. While eVTOLs take off vertically
like helicopters, most current designs use wings to generate aerodynamic lift during forward
(cruise) flight.
Using wings:
• Reduces dependence on rotors for lift,
• Saves battery energy,
• Increases range and endurance.
Only purely rotor-based vehicles (like helicopters) eliminate wing-generated lift, but such
designs are less energy-efficient for electric flight.
With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI), consider the following
statements:
1. The Competition Commission of India is a statutory body established under the
Competition Act, 2002 and functions under the administrative control of the
Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. The Chairperson and Members of the Commission must have a minimum of fifteen
years of professional experience in competition law only.
3. The Competition Commission of India is empowered to give its opinion on
competition-related issues when a reference is made by a statutory authority
established under any law.
4. Competition advocacy, public awareness, and imparting training on competition
issues form part of the statutory mandate of the Competition Commission of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
71%
1, 3 and 4 only
10%
1 and 2 only
11%
2, 3, and 4 only
8%
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct: The Competition Commission of India is a statutory body established
under the Competition Act, 2002. It functions under the administrative control (nodal ministry)
of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The Commission was constituted in 2003 and became fully
operational in 2009.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Act does not restrict eligibility only to competition law. The
Chairperson and Members must have not less than 15 years of professional experience in any
one or more of a wide range of fields such as economics, international trade, business,
commerce, law, finance, accountancy, management, industry, technology, public affairs, or
competition matters.
Statement 3 is Correct: Under the Competition Act, the CCI is required to give its opinion on
competition issues when a reference is received from a statutory authority established under
any law.
Statement 4 is Correct: Apart from enforcement, the CCI has a competition advocacy
mandate, which includes:
• Creating public awareness
• Imparting training
• Promoting a competition culture