Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy
Regulatory Board (AERB), making it an independent nuclear safety regulator with defined
powers for licensing, inspection, and enforcement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 does not repeal the Atomic Energy Act,
1962; instead, it consolidates and rationalizes provisions from the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, without repealing the former. The Bill
creates a unified and modern regulatory framework but retains the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
as the foundational law, updating and streamlining its provisions.
Statement 3 is correct: The nuclear safety principles under the SHANTI Bill continue to be
governed by the doctrine of “safety first, production next,” ensuring that safety standards
remain uncompromised and are aligned with global best practices.

With reference to Bekal Fort, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the northernmost district of Kerala.
2. It is a coastal fort overlooking the Arabian Sea.
3. It lies in the Western Ghats Mountain range.

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct.
Bekal Fort is situated in Kasaragod district, which is the northernmost district of Kerala.
Hence, the statement regarding its location is accurate.
Statement 2 is correct.
The fort is a coastal fort constructed along the Arabian Sea coast. Its strategic design allows a
clear view of the sea, which was historically useful for monitoring maritime activities.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Bekal Fort does not lie in the Western Ghats Mountain range. Instead, it is located on the
western coastal plain at a low elevation near sea level. The Western Ghats run inland and are
geographically distinct from the coastal belt where Bekal Fort is located.

With reference to the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022, consider the following
statements:
1. The rules apply only to Electric Vehicle batteries and industrial batteries.
2. The rules are based on the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
3. Producers are required to use domestically recycled materials in new batteries.

Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 apply to all types of batteries, including Electric
Vehicle batteries, portable batteries, automotive batteries, and industrial batteries.
Statement 2 is correct: The rules mandate Extended Producer Responsibility, meaning
producers (including importers) are responsible for the collection, recycling, and refurbishment
of waste batteries.
Statement 3 is correct: The rules require producers to use a minimum amount of
domestically recycled materials in the manufacture of new batteries, as clarified by CPCB and
specified in the rules.

With reference to the Sahitya Akademi and its awards, consider the following statements:
1. The Sahitya Akademi awards are given only for works originally written in languages
listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The Sahitya Akademi is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
3. English and Rajasthani are recognised by the Sahitya Akademi even though they are
not listed in the Eighth Schedule.
4. It awards the highest civilian literary honour in India.

Answer: (B)
Statement 1is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi recognises 24 languages, not limited strictly to the
Eighth Schedule. Besides the 22 constitutional languages, English and Rajasthani are also
recognised.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi is not a statutory body.
It is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, making it a non-statutory
autonomous body.
Statement 3 is Correct: English and Rajasthani are not in the Eighth Schedule, yet they are
officially recognised by the Akademi.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: The highest literary honour is Jnanpith Award, not Sahitya
Akademi Award. It functions as an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Culture.

Assertion: Under the Agnipath Scheme, Agniveers are not entitled to pensionary or gratuity
benefits after completing four years of service in the armed forces.
Reason: The Agnipath Scheme is designed to induct soldiers primarily for short-term service in
order to reduce the long-term financial burden of salaries and pensions on the defence budget.

Answer: (A)
Assertion (A) is correct
Under the Agnipath Scheme, Agniveers serve for four years and are not eligible for pension
or gratuity benefits. Instead, they receive a Seva Nidhi package as a one-time, tax-free amount
upon exit.
Reason (R) is correct
One of the explicit objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to reduce the recurring expenditure
on defence salaries and pensions, thereby freeing resources for military modernisation.
The absence of pensionary benefits for Agniveers directly flows from the scheme’s objective of
minimising long-term fiscal liabilities. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

The Lokpal can order prosecution of a public servant only after:
(a) Obtaining prior approval of the Central Vigilance Commission
(b) Completion of preliminary inquiry and investigation
(c) Approval of the President of India
(d) Recommendation of the Supreme Court

Answer: (B)
According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal can order prosecution of a public
servant only after following a prescribed statutory process. Under Section 20 of the Act, the
Lokpal must first conduct a preliminary inquiry through its Inquiry Wing to ascertain whether
a prima facie (It refers to evidence that is sufficient at first glance) case of corruption exists. If
such a case is made out, the Lokpal then orders a full investigation by its Investigation Wing
or any other authorized agency. Only after the investigation is completed, and sufficient
evidence is found, can the Lokpal grant sanction for prosecution and direct filing of the charge
sheet before a Special Court. This procedure ensures due process and protects against arbitrary
prosecution.

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps), consider the following
statements:
1. The Great Indian Bustard has a low reproductive rate, usually laying only one egg at a
time, which hampers population recovery.
2. The species is included under Appendix I of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
3. Captive breeding of the Great Indian Bustard is being undertaken using artificial
incubation techniques.

Answer: (D)
Statement 1 is Correct: The Great Indian Bustard has an extremely low reproductive rate, with
the female usually laying only one egg per breeding season. This biological trait significantly
limits natural population recovery and makes the species highly vulnerable to mortality.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Great Indian Bustard is not included in Appendix I of the
Convention on Migratory Species (CMS). It is a non-migratory, endemic grassland bird.
Statement 3 is Correct: Captive breeding programmes for the Great Indian Bustard are
underway, particularly in Rajasthan, where artificial incubation of eggs is being used as part of
ex-situ conservation to prevent extinction.

With reference to ISRO’s launch of the BlueBird communications satellite, consider the following
statements:
I. The BlueBird satellite has been developed by NASA.
II. The satellite will be launched using ISRO’s LVM3-M6 launch vehicle.
III. LVM3 is primarily designed for launching small satellites into Low Earth Orbit (LEO).