Answer: C
Soln:
EPIC number:
● The Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC) number is a 10-digit voter ID card number
issued by the Election Commission of India to each voter. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The number is a unique alphanumeric code assigned to each registered elector to prevent impersonation.
● It was introduced in 1993 under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, to enhance electoral transparency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● It is assigned via the Election Commission’s ERONET digital platform when a new voter registers, after which it is linked to State and constituency data to ensure regional
uniqueness.

1. Consider the following statements about the Sahyog portal.
1. It was launched to facilitate the removal of any information, data or communication link in
cyberspace which is used for unlawful activities.
2. The portal is maintained by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN).
3. It has the power to directly take down contents from digital platforms like social media
sites.

Answer: A
Soln:
● The Sahyog portal was launched in 2024 by the Union Home Ministry to expedite orders to
block objectionable content.
● It is maintained by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). Hence, statement
2 is incorrect.
● Sahyog portal has been launched to expedite the process of sending notices to IT
intermediaries by the appropriate government or its agency under Clause (b) of Sub-
section (3) of Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000 to facilitate the removal or disabling of
access to any information, data or communication link being used to commit an unlawful
act. Sahyog cannot directly take down information but it can ask the data intermediaries like websites, social media sites to take down information. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.

2. Consider the following statements.
1. Sexual dimorphism refers to the presence of male and female reproductive parts in a single
organism.
2. An electroencephalography (EEG) is a test that measures electrical activity in the heart to detect any abnormality.

Answer: C
Soln:
● Sexual dimorphism refers to the various prominent differences in the physical
characteristics of males and females of the same species apart from just their primary
reproductive characteristics. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● These differences may include size, colour, shape, cognitive abilities, and various other
distinct characteristics.
● A hermaphrodite is an animal that has both male and female reproductive organs and
produces both eggs and sperm.
● An electroencephalography (EEG) is a test that measures electrical activity in the brain to
detect the presence of any abnormal brain conditions including seizures, brain death etc.,.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

● Electroencephalography has recently gained attention as it celebrates the 100th anniversary of the first human EEG, a groundbreaking development by German physiologist Hans Berger.
● ‘Electro-’ pertains to electricity; ‘-encephalo-’ refers to the brain; and ‘-graphy’ is a suffix meaning to show or to represent.

3. Consider the following statements about ‘Invasive Species’.
1. These can be any kind of non native living organism which significantly disrupts the ecosystems it colonises.
2. All non native species are invasive in India.
3. Lantana camara and Parthenium hysterophorus are invasive species in India.

Answer: B
Soln:
Invasive species:
● An invasive species can be any kind of living organism (an amphibian, plant, insect, fish,
fungus, bacteria, or even an organism’s seeds or eggs) that is not native to an ecosystem
and significantly modifies or disrupts the ecosystems it colonizes. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
● Not all non-native species are invasive. For example, most of the food crops grown in
India, including onion, potato and tomatoes are not native to the region. Species are
described as 'invasive' if they are ecologically and/or economically harmful. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
● Common characteristics of invasive species include:
○ Rapid reproduction and growth,
○ High dispersal ability,
○ Phenotypic plasticity (ability to adapt physiologically to new conditions), and
○ Ability to survive in a wide range of environmental conditions.
● Some of the most serious invasive species in India are Alternanthera philoxeroides,
Cassia uniflora, Chromolaena odorata, Eichhornia crassipes, Lantana camara,
Parthenium hysterophorus and Prosopis juliflora, Senna Sepctabilis, etc. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Why are invasive species a cause of concern?
● Invasive species often outcompete native species for essential resources such as food,
water, light, and space.
● Invasive species can alter habitats by modifying soil composition, disrupting hydrological cycles, leading to habitat degradation.
● Invasive species may introduce new diseases to which native species lack resistance leading to mortality of native species.
● Invasive species can reduce populations of native species and overtime also result in local
extinctions.

4. Consider the following statements about the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
1. It is governed by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (DSPE), 1964.
2. General Consent is given by the States to the CBI to conduct its investigation into cases of corruption against central government employees in the concerned state.
3. If a state withdraws its general consent, all investigations by the CBI in the state stops.

Answer: B
Soln:
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
● The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) traces its origins to the Special Police
Establishment, a Central Government Police force, which was set up in 1941 by the British
to investigate bribery and corruption.
● In 1963, the Home Ministry expanded its power and changed its name to the Central
Bureau of Investigation. It is governed by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
(DSPE), 1946. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The CBI was established with a view to investigate serious crimes related to Defence of
India, corruption in high places, serious fraud, cheating and embezzlement and social crime,
particularly of hoarding, black-marketing and profiteering in essential commodities, having
all-India and inter-state ramifications.
● CBI acts as an interface between the law enforcement agencies of India and other countries
to ensure cooperation. It facilitates exchange and sharing of information by these agencies.
● The superintendence of CBI related to investigation of offences under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and in other
matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of
Personnel, Pension & Grievances.
CBI Director:
● The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 governs the appointment of the CBI director.
● The CBI director is appointed by the Centre on the basis of the recommendation of a search
committee comprising:
○ the Prime Minister as the chairperson,
○ the Chief Justice of India and
○ the Leader of Opposition.

Requirement of Consent
● The DSPE Act grants the CBI power to investigate a case in Delhi, without any
permission, since it is part of the Centre.
● However, in all the states, the CBI needs the consent of the state to investigate any case
relating to that state or having jurisdiction of that state.
● The Central police cannot investigate or enter the state without the consent since police
and public order are state subjects and the Centre cannot intervene in law and order
matters.
● The CBI can initiate suo motu investigations only in Union Territories, under the DSPE Act.
● The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order the CBI to investigate such a
crime anywhere in the country without the consent of states.
Types of consent
● There are two kinds of consent: case-specific and general.
○ “General consent” is normally given to help the CBI seamlessly conduct its
investigation into cases of corruption against central government employees in the
concerned state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○ Otherwise, the CBI would require consent in every case.
● When a state withdraws its general consent, the CBI will not be able to register any fresh case involving a central government official or a private person stationed in such states without getting case-specific consent.

● However, there will be no bar on investigation into cases that are already being probed by the CBI. The CBI cannot file any new FIRs in any new cases. Hence, statement 3
is incorrect.

5. Consider the following statements about the ‘Nirbhaya Fund’.
1. The fund can be utilised for projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women.
2. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
3. The Ministry of Women & Child Development is the only Ministry associated with the fund.

Answer: A
Soln:
Nirbhaya Fund:
● Nirbhaya Fund is a dedicated fund set up by the Government of India in 2013 which can be
utilised for projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It is a non-lapsable corpus fund administered by the Department of Economic Affairs of
the Ministry of Finance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● As per this framework, the Ministry of Finance through the Department of Economic
Affairs is the nodal Ministry for any accretion into and withdrawal from the corpus, and the
Ministry of Women & Child Development is the nodal authority for appraisal of the
schemes/proposals received under Nirbhaya Fund. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● The proposed projects under the Nirbhaya Fund should have the following features:
○ Direct impact on safety and security concerns of women
○ Optimum use of existing infrastructure
○ Innovative use of technology
○ No duplication of existing government schemes/programmes
○ Provision for real time intervention as far as possible.
● Note: Funding to Non-Governmental Organisations is not envisaged under the framework.

1. Consider the following statements about Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act,
2019
1) It empowers both the central and state government to designate an individual a “terrorist”
if they are found committing an act of terror.
2) It requires any investigating officer to take prior permission of the Director General of
Police of a state for conducting raids.

Answer: D
Explanation
● The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament
in 2019. It amends the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The amendment act empowers the central government to
designate an individual a “terrorist” if they are found committing, preparing for,
promoting, or involved in an act of terror. Earlier, the Central Government was having
powers only to designate organizations as terrorist organizations.
● The UAPA law of 1967 requires an investigating officer to take prior permission of the
Director General of Police of a state for conducting raids, and seizing properties that are
suspected to be linked to terrorist activities.
● The amendment act of 2019 however, removes this requirement if the investigation is
conducted by an officer of the National Investigation Agency (NIA). The investigating
officer, under the 2019 act, only requires sanction from the Director General of NIA.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
○ Central agencies such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) are required
to obtain prior permission from the state government since law and order is a
state subject under the Constitution.

● The UAPA law of 1967 specifies that only officers of the rank of Deputy Superintendent or
Assistant Commissioner of Police of the NIA shall have the power to investigate offenses
under the UAPA law. The amendment act seeks to allow NIA officers of Inspector rank to
carry out investigations.
Why in News?
● A tribunal under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) has upheld the Centre’s
decision to declare seven valley based Meitei extremist organizations as “unlawful
associations” for the next five years.
What is a UAPA tribunal?
● The UAPA provides for a tribunal under a High Court judge to be constituted by the
government for its bans to have long-term legal sanctity.
● Orders to declare an organization as “unlawful” are issued by the Centre under the UAPA. A
government order would not come into effect until the tribunal has confirmed it.
○ However, in exceptional circumstances, the notification can come into effect
immediately once the reasons for it are recorded in writing. The tribunal can
endorse or reject it.

● The tribunal consists of only one person, who has to be a High Court judge.

● The Centre is to provide to the tribunal such staff as necessary for the discharge of its
functions. All expenses incurred for a tribunal are borne out of the Consolidated Fund of
India.
● The tribunal has power to regulate its own procedure, including the place at which it
holds its sittings.
● To make inquiries, the tribunal has the same powers as vested in a civil court under the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
○ These can be exercised in summoning a witness and examining him on oath;
production of any document or other material object producible as evidence; the
reception of evidence on affidavits; the requisitioning of any public record from any
court or office; and the issuing of any commission for the examination of witnesses.

● All proceedings before the Tribunal are deemed to be judicial proceedings.

2. Which of the following statements is correct about Sensex?