How many of the above statements are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
20%
A. Only one
53%
B. Only two
26%
C. Only three
2%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
● Hydrogen can be ‘grey’, ‘brown’, ‘Turquoise’, ‘blue’ and green.
○ Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using
renewable sources of energy such as solar, wind or hydel power. It is produced by
splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable electricity. That makes
green hydrogen the cleanest option – hydrogen from renewable energy sources
without CO2 as a by-product.
○ The vast majority of industrial hydrogen is currently produced from natural gas
through a conventional process known as steam methane reforming (SMR). The
standard SMR process produces what is known as Grey Hydrogen and has the
major disadvantage of releasing large quantities of by-product CO2 into the
atmosphere - the main culprit for climate change.
○ Grey hydrogen has increasingly been produced also from coal, with significantly
higher CO2 emissions per unit of hydrogen produced so much that it is often called
brown or black hydrogen instead of grey.
○ Statement 2 is incorrect: Blue hydrogen, too, is produced using electricity
generated by burning methane or coal but with technologies to prevent the
carbon released in the process from entering the atmosphere;
○ Statement 3 is correct: Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called
methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen and solid carbon. As a result, there is no
requirement for carbon capture and storage (CCS) and the carbon can even be used
in other applications. Where the electricity driving the pyrolysis is renewable, the
process is zero-carbon.
Explanation
● Hydrogen can be ‘grey’, ‘brown’, ‘Turquoise’, ‘blue’ and green.
○ Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using
renewable sources of energy such as solar, wind or hydel power. It is produced by
splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable electricity. That makes
green hydrogen the cleanest option – hydrogen from renewable energy sources
without CO2 as a by-product.
○ The vast majority of industrial hydrogen is currently produced from natural gas
through a conventional process known as steam methane reforming (SMR). The
standard SMR process produces what is known as Grey Hydrogen and has the
major disadvantage of releasing large quantities of by-product CO2 into the
atmosphere - the main culprit for climate change.
○ Grey hydrogen has increasingly been produced also from coal, with significantly
higher CO2 emissions per unit of hydrogen produced so much that it is often called
brown or black hydrogen instead of grey.
○ Statement 2 is incorrect: Blue hydrogen, too, is produced using electricity
generated by burning methane or coal but with technologies to prevent the
carbon released in the process from entering the atmosphere;
○ Statement 3 is correct: Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called
methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen and solid carbon. As a result, there is no
requirement for carbon capture and storage (CCS) and the carbon can even be used
in other applications. Where the electricity driving the pyrolysis is renewable, the
process is zero-carbon.
5. Consider the following statements about the Moon.
1. A “supermoon” occurs when a full moon coincides with the Moon closest approach to
Earth in its elliptical orbit.
2. The Moon closest approach to the Earth in its orbit is a point known as apogee.
3. Blue Moon is the second full moon in a calendar month.
1. A “supermoon” occurs when a full moon coincides with the Moon closest approach to
Earth in its elliptical orbit.
2. The Moon closest approach to the Earth in its orbit is a point known as apogee.
3. Blue Moon is the second full moon in a calendar month.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
A. Only one
66%
B. Only two
21%
C. All the three
1%
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Soln:
What is a Supermoon?
● A “supermoon” occurs when a full moon coincides with the Moon's closest approach to
Earth in its elliptical orbit, a point known as perigee. Hence, statement 1 is correct and
statement 2 is incorrect.
● When that happens, it appears slightly brighter and larger than a regular full moon.
● Supermoons are generally seen every three or four months.
What is the Blue Moon?
● Blue Moon is the second full moon in a calendar month. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● Usually months have only one full moon, but occasionally a second one sneaks in.
● Full moons are separated by 29.5 days, while most months are 30 or 31 days long; so it is
possible to fit two full moons in a single month.
● This happens every two and a half years, on average.
What is a Blue Supermoon?
● A supermoon coinciding with a blue moon i.e. Blue supermoons are a much rarer
occurrence.
● Blue supermoons occur once every 10 years or so.
Soln:
What is a Supermoon?
● A “supermoon” occurs when a full moon coincides with the Moon's closest approach to
Earth in its elliptical orbit, a point known as perigee. Hence, statement 1 is correct and
statement 2 is incorrect.
● When that happens, it appears slightly brighter and larger than a regular full moon.
● Supermoons are generally seen every three or four months.
What is the Blue Moon?
● Blue Moon is the second full moon in a calendar month. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● Usually months have only one full moon, but occasionally a second one sneaks in.
● Full moons are separated by 29.5 days, while most months are 30 or 31 days long; so it is
possible to fit two full moons in a single month.
● This happens every two and a half years, on average.
What is a Blue Supermoon?
● A supermoon coinciding with a blue moon i.e. Blue supermoons are a much rarer
occurrence.
● Blue supermoons occur once every 10 years or so.
1. Consider the following statements.
1. National Emergency can be imposed in a particular state in the event of breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the particular state.
2. On imposition of the President's rule, the President directly gets the power to legislate on behalf of the state legislature.
3. The President's rule has no impact on the fundamental rights of the citizens.
1. National Emergency can be imposed in a particular state in the event of breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the particular state.
2. On imposition of the President's rule, the President directly gets the power to legislate on behalf of the state legislature.
3. The President's rule has no impact on the fundamental rights of the citizens.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
30%
A. Only one
42%
B. Only two
22%
C. All the three
6%
D. None of the above
2. With respect to the imports and exports by a country, consider the following statements about Dumping.
1. Dumping is the practice of selling a product in a foreign market at an unfairly low price in order to gain a competitive advantage over other suppliers.
2. Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses from unfair competition created due to dumping.
3. The World Trade Organisation(WTO) plays an important role in regulation of anti-dumping measures.
1. Dumping is the practice of selling a product in a foreign market at an unfairly low price in order to gain a competitive advantage over other suppliers.
2. Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses from unfair competition created due to dumping.
3. The World Trade Organisation(WTO) plays an important role in regulation of anti-dumping measures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. Only one
22%
B. Only two
70%
C. All the three
0%
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Soln:
● As per article 352, National emergency can only be imposed on the following three grounds,
○ War,
○ External aggression and
○ Armed rebellion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● As per article 357, Parliament should confer the legislative power of the State Legislature on the President. He/She does not get it automatically. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Only during the National Emergency, the fundamental rights of the people are affected. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Soln:
● As per article 352, National emergency can only be imposed on the following three grounds,
○ War,
○ External aggression and
○ Armed rebellion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● As per article 357, Parliament should confer the legislative power of the State Legislature on the President. He/She does not get it automatically. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Only during the National Emergency, the fundamental rights of the people are affected. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Answer: C
Soln:
Dumping:
● Dumping is the practice of selling a product in a foreign market at an unfairly low price (a price that is lower than the cost in the home market, or which is lower than the cost of production) in order to gain a competitive advantage over other suppliers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Dumping is done to gain access to the foreign market and eliminate competition. It creates a monopoly in the market.
● Dumping enables consumers in the importing country to obtain access to goods at an affordable price.
● However, it can also destroy the local market of the importing country, which can result in layoffs and the closure of businesses.
Anti-dumping duty:
● An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports when it believes that the goods are being “dumped” – through the low pricing – in the domestic market.
● Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● The imposition of anti-dumping duty is a legitimate trade remedial measure under the World Trade Organization (WTO) rules.
Ill effects of such duties:
● While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to save domestic jobs, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
● In the long-term, anti-dumping duties can reduce the international competition of domestic companies producing similar goods.
Dumping and WTO:
● WTO plays a critical role in the regulation of anti-dumping measures. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market.
● The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.
● In other cases, the WTO intervenes to prevent anti-dumping measures.
Institutional arrangement in India:
● Anti-dumping measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
● DGTR conducts the investigation and makes recommendations to the Government for imposition of anti-dumping measures.
● Such duty is finally imposed/levied by a Notification of the Ministry of Finance.
● Of the 46 anti-dumping duties levied in the latest three fiscals, 60 per cent targeted goods originating only in China and 26 per cent targeted goods originating in China and at least one other country.
Soln:
Dumping:
● Dumping is the practice of selling a product in a foreign market at an unfairly low price (a price that is lower than the cost in the home market, or which is lower than the cost of production) in order to gain a competitive advantage over other suppliers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Dumping is done to gain access to the foreign market and eliminate competition. It creates a monopoly in the market.
● Dumping enables consumers in the importing country to obtain access to goods at an affordable price.
● However, it can also destroy the local market of the importing country, which can result in layoffs and the closure of businesses.
Anti-dumping duty:
● An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports when it believes that the goods are being “dumped” – through the low pricing – in the domestic market.
● Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● The imposition of anti-dumping duty is a legitimate trade remedial measure under the World Trade Organization (WTO) rules.
Ill effects of such duties:
● While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to save domestic jobs, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
● In the long-term, anti-dumping duties can reduce the international competition of domestic companies producing similar goods.
Dumping and WTO:
● WTO plays a critical role in the regulation of anti-dumping measures. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market.
● The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.
● In other cases, the WTO intervenes to prevent anti-dumping measures.
Institutional arrangement in India:
● Anti-dumping measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
● DGTR conducts the investigation and makes recommendations to the Government for imposition of anti-dumping measures.
● Such duty is finally imposed/levied by a Notification of the Ministry of Finance.
● Of the 46 anti-dumping duties levied in the latest three fiscals, 60 per cent targeted goods originating only in China and 26 per cent targeted goods originating in China and at least one other country.
3. Consider the following statements about the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).
1. MSP aims to catalyze public and private investment in responsible critical minerals supply chains globally.
2. China is a full member of MSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
61%
A. 1 only
10%
B. 2 only
29%
C. Both 1 and 2
0%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Minerals Security Partnership:
● The US and its partners — Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea (South Korea), Sweden, the United Kingdom, Italy and the European Union — formed the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2022.
○ India joined MSP in 2023.
○ China is not a member of MSP. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
● The goal of the alliance is to catalyze public and private investment in responsible critical minerals supply chains globally. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The focus would be on the supply chains of minerals such as Cobalt, Nickel, Lithium and also the 17 “rare earth” minerals.
○ Rare earth minerals are a set of seventeen metallic elements. They are called 'rare earth' because earlier it was difficult to extract them from their oxides forms technologically.
○ They are an essential part of many electronic items and high-tech devices.
○ China is the largest producer of these minerals.
4. Consider the following statements about the B2- Stealth bombers recently seen in the news.
1. It is a dual-capable multi-role heavy bomber, powered by four engines.
2. It is the only current active stealth bomber in the World.
3. It is completely developed by Boeing Corporation.
1. It is a dual-capable multi-role heavy bomber, powered by four engines.
2. It is the only current active stealth bomber in the World.
3. It is completely developed by Boeing Corporation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
26%
A. Only one
59%
B. Only two
10%
C. All three
4%
D. None
Answer: B
Soln:
● The U.S. Air Force (USAF) operates B-2, the only fully stealth bomber currently operated in any country. Russia and China are developing similar aircrafts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Each B-2 costs over $2 billion, the most expensive aircraft ever, and so only 21 aircraft were built.
● It is a dual-capable multi-role heavy bomber, powered by four engines. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● According to the USAF, the B-2’s low observability is derived from a combination of reduced infrared, acoustic, electromagnetic, visual and radar signatures.
● The B-2 made its first flight in 1989 and began operations in 1997.
● With a crew of two, it can carry a payload of 40,000 lb, has an unrefueled range of 6,000 miles and a service ceiling of 50,000 feet.
● It is manufactured by Northrop Grumman, a leading arms manufacturing company in the USA. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Soln:
● The U.S. Air Force (USAF) operates B-2, the only fully stealth bomber currently operated in any country. Russia and China are developing similar aircrafts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Each B-2 costs over $2 billion, the most expensive aircraft ever, and so only 21 aircraft were built.
● It is a dual-capable multi-role heavy bomber, powered by four engines. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● According to the USAF, the B-2’s low observability is derived from a combination of reduced infrared, acoustic, electromagnetic, visual and radar signatures.
● The B-2 made its first flight in 1989 and began operations in 1997.
● With a crew of two, it can carry a payload of 40,000 lb, has an unrefueled range of 6,000 miles and a service ceiling of 50,000 feet.
● It is manufactured by Northrop Grumman, a leading arms manufacturing company in the USA. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
1. Consider the following statements about Judges in the High courts.
1. The Collegium for the appointment of a High Court judge and the collegium for the transfer
of High Court judges are the same in
composition.
2. Distinguished jurists in the opinion of the President can be appointed as a judge in the High court.
3. Based on Collegium’s recommendation, the Governor of the particular state appoints a High Court Judge.
1. The Collegium for the appointment of a High Court judge and the collegium for the transfer
of High Court judges are the same in
composition.
2. Distinguished jurists in the opinion of the President can be appointed as a judge in the High court.
3. Based on Collegium’s recommendation, the Governor of the particular state appoints a High Court Judge.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
24%
A. Only one
31%
B. Only two
16%
C. All three
29%
D. None
Answer: D
Soln:
As per the Judges case and Memorandum of Procedure, the Collegium process for appointment of
the High Court Judges is summarised below:
● The Collegium for appointment of the High Court judges consists of the Chief Justice of
India and other two senior Judges of the Supreme Court.
● The process for filling up any vacancy in a High Court shall be initiated by the Chief Justice
of the concerned High Court in consultation with other two senior Judges of the High
Court.
● The proposed list of names for appointment is sent by the Chief Justice of the High Court to
the Governor of the State, the Union Government and the Supreme Court Collegium.
● The State Government may provide its inputs on the proposed list of names to the Union
Government.
● The Union Government with its comments forwards the same to the Supreme Court
Collegium.
● The Supreme Court Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and other two senior
Judges then make the final recommendation for appointment of Judges to a High Court.
● The President appoints the Judges to a High Court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Transfer of Judges:
● The President may, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, transfer a Judge from
one High Court to any other High Court [Art 222].
● This process of transfer is also based on recommendation of the Supreme Court Collegium.
The Collegium for transfer of Judges consists of the Chief Justice of India and four
other senior judges of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The Chief Justice of India shall also consult the Chief Justices of concerned High Courts i.e.,
the High Court from which the transfer is to be made and the High Court to which the
transfer is to be made before recommending transfer of a Judge to the President.
Qualification for a High Court Judge
As per Article 217(2), a person shall be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court if he/
she fulfils the following conditions:
● He/she is a citizen of India and,
● For at least 10 years held a judicial office in the territory of India; or 3. Has for at least 10
years been an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
● Distinguished jurists can be appointed as judge only in the Supreme Court. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
Soln:
As per the Judges case and Memorandum of Procedure, the Collegium process for appointment of
the High Court Judges is summarised below:
● The Collegium for appointment of the High Court judges consists of the Chief Justice of
India and other two senior Judges of the Supreme Court.
● The process for filling up any vacancy in a High Court shall be initiated by the Chief Justice
of the concerned High Court in consultation with other two senior Judges of the High
Court.
● The proposed list of names for appointment is sent by the Chief Justice of the High Court to
the Governor of the State, the Union Government and the Supreme Court Collegium.
● The State Government may provide its inputs on the proposed list of names to the Union
Government.
● The Union Government with its comments forwards the same to the Supreme Court
Collegium.
● The Supreme Court Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and other two senior
Judges then make the final recommendation for appointment of Judges to a High Court.
● The President appoints the Judges to a High Court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Transfer of Judges:
● The President may, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, transfer a Judge from
one High Court to any other High Court [Art 222].
● This process of transfer is also based on recommendation of the Supreme Court Collegium.
The Collegium for transfer of Judges consists of the Chief Justice of India and four
other senior judges of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The Chief Justice of India shall also consult the Chief Justices of concerned High Courts i.e.,
the High Court from which the transfer is to be made and the High Court to which the
transfer is to be made before recommending transfer of a Judge to the President.
Qualification for a High Court Judge
As per Article 217(2), a person shall be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court if he/
she fulfils the following conditions:
● He/she is a citizen of India and,
● For at least 10 years held a judicial office in the territory of India; or 3. Has for at least 10
years been an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
● Distinguished jurists can be appointed as judge only in the Supreme Court. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
2. Consider the following statements about the New Development Bank (NDB).
1. It was established with the objective of financing infrastructure and sustainable development needs of the BRICS countries and other emerging economies..
2. Its membership is open to all members of the United Nations.
3. It has its headquarters in New Delhi.
1. It was established with the objective of financing infrastructure and sustainable development needs of the BRICS countries and other emerging economies..
2. Its membership is open to all members of the United Nations.
3. It has its headquarters in New Delhi.