UPSC CSE WORKSHOP 2025 – Simulate a Full Day of Effective Study!
Join our 8-hour intensive workshop to streamline your preparation with:
NCERT Approach – Learn how to effectively study NCERTs
Current Affairs Simplified – Decode newspaper reading strategies
Answer Writing Techniques – Craft impactful answers
PYQ Analysis – Understand exam trends
Date: 22 June 2025
Time: 9 AM – 5 PM
Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai
Things to Bring:
1) Notebook
2) The Hindu newspaper (June 19th & 20th - Any Edition)
Limited seats! Register now: https://forms.gle/LL4prcD4s2n3L3d57
For more info Call: +91 936373 0226
Thank you.
Join our 8-hour intensive workshop to streamline your preparation with:
NCERT Approach – Learn how to effectively study NCERTs
Current Affairs Simplified – Decode newspaper reading strategies
Answer Writing Techniques – Craft impactful answers
PYQ Analysis – Understand exam trends
Date: 22 June 2025
Time: 9 AM – 5 PM
Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai
Things to Bring:
1) Notebook
2) The Hindu newspaper (June 19th & 20th - Any Edition)
Limited seats! Register now: https://forms.gle/LL4prcD4s2n3L3d57
For more info Call: +91 936373 0226
Thank you.
2. Consider the following statements about the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
1) It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
2) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Food Processing and Industries.
1) It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
2) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Food Processing and Industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
43%
A) 1 only
15%
B) 2 only
41%
C) Both 1 and 2
1%
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Soln:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is the administrative Ministry of FSSAI.
● FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
Soln:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is the administrative Ministry of FSSAI.
● FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
3. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established by which of the following organizations?
Answer: B
Soln:
● The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization that designs and promotes policies and standards to combat target money laundering, terrorist financing, and other threats to the global financial system.
● The FATF was created in 1989 by the G7 countries, and is headquartered in Paris. Hence, option B is correct.
● There are 37 members, including India and two regional organizations- European Commission and the Gulf Cooperation Council.
● India became an observer at FATF in 2006. FATF admitted India as the 34th Country Member of FATF in 2010.
● FATF maintains two different lists of countries: those that have deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter terrorist financing (AML/CTF) regimes but they commit to an action plan to address these loopholes, and those that do not end up doing enough. The former is commonly known as the grey list and latter as blacklist.
Soln:
● The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization that designs and promotes policies and standards to combat target money laundering, terrorist financing, and other threats to the global financial system.
● The FATF was created in 1989 by the G7 countries, and is headquartered in Paris. Hence, option B is correct.
● There are 37 members, including India and two regional organizations- European Commission and the Gulf Cooperation Council.
● India became an observer at FATF in 2006. FATF admitted India as the 34th Country Member of FATF in 2010.
● FATF maintains two different lists of countries: those that have deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter terrorist financing (AML/CTF) regimes but they commit to an action plan to address these loopholes, and those that do not end up doing enough. The former is commonly known as the grey list and latter as blacklist.
4. With reference to the Securities Appellate Tribunal, consider the following statements:
1) It is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
2) It hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
3) There is no appeal against the orders of the Securities Appellate Tribunal.
1) It is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
2) It hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
3) There is no appeal against the orders of the Securities Appellate Tribunal.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
19%
A) Only one
65%
B) Only two
12%
C) All three
4%
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Securities Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
● It was mainly established to hear and dispose of appealsagainst orders passed by SEBI or by an adjudicating officer under the SEBI Act.
● SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the PFRDA Act, 2013.
● Statement 2 is correct: SAT also hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
● SAT has only one bench which sits at Mumbai.
Composition
● SAT consists one Presiding Officer and such number ofJudicial and Technical Members as the Central Government may determine.
● The person so appointed as the Presiding Officer should meet with the following requirements:
○ The retired or sitting Judge of the Supreme Court
○ The retired or sitting Chief Justice of a High Court
○ The retired or sitting Judge of High Court, who has completed at least seven years of service as a Judge in a High Court.
Appeal
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Every person aggrieved by any order or decision of Securities Appellate Tribunal can file an appeal to the supreme court. Also, the appeal only can be made on any question of law.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Securities Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
● It was mainly established to hear and dispose of appealsagainst orders passed by SEBI or by an adjudicating officer under the SEBI Act.
● SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the PFRDA Act, 2013.
● Statement 2 is correct: SAT also hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
● SAT has only one bench which sits at Mumbai.
Composition
● SAT consists one Presiding Officer and such number ofJudicial and Technical Members as the Central Government may determine.
● The person so appointed as the Presiding Officer should meet with the following requirements:
○ The retired or sitting Judge of the Supreme Court
○ The retired or sitting Chief Justice of a High Court
○ The retired or sitting Judge of High Court, who has completed at least seven years of service as a Judge in a High Court.
Appeal
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Every person aggrieved by any order or decision of Securities Appellate Tribunal can file an appeal to the supreme court. Also, the appeal only can be made on any question of law.
5. Consider the following statements.
1. Gene editing is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA.
2. CRISPR-Cas9 technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
1. Gene editing is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA.
2. CRISPR-Cas9 technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
15%
A) 1 only
17%
B) 2 only
64%
C) Both 1 and 2
5%
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Soln:
● Statement 1 is correct: Gene editing (also known as genome editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome.
○ A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism. It provides all of the information the organism requires to function. In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
● Genome editing is of great interest in the prevention and treatment of human diseases. Currently, most research on genome editing is done to understand diseases using cells and animal models.
● Gene editing is being explored in research on a wide variety of diseases, including single-gene disorders such as cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease. It also holds promise for the treatment and prevention of more complex diseases, such as cancer, heart disease, mental illness, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
CRISPR-Cas9
● Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. A recent one is known as CRISPR-Cas9, which is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9.
● This method of genome editing is faster, cheaper, more accurate, and more efficient than other existing methods.
● In essence, the technology works in a simple way — it locates the specific area in the genetic sequence which has been diagnosed to be the cause of the problem, cuts it out, and replaces it with a new and correct sequence that no longer causes the problem.
● Statement 2 is correct: The technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
How does it work?
● An RNA molecule is programmed to locate the particular problematic sequence on the DNA strand, and a special protein called Cas9, which now is often described in popular literature as ‘genetic scissor’, is used to break and remove the problematic sequence.
● A DNA strand, when broken, has a natural tendency to repair itself. But the auto-repair mechanism can lead to the re-growth of a problematic sequence. Scientists intervene during this auto-repair process by supplying the desired sequence of genetic codes, which replaces the original sequence.
● It is like cutting a portion of a long zipper somewhere in between, and replacing that portion with a fresh segment.
Soln:
● Statement 1 is correct: Gene editing (also known as genome editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome.
○ A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism. It provides all of the information the organism requires to function. In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
● Genome editing is of great interest in the prevention and treatment of human diseases. Currently, most research on genome editing is done to understand diseases using cells and animal models.
● Gene editing is being explored in research on a wide variety of diseases, including single-gene disorders such as cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease. It also holds promise for the treatment and prevention of more complex diseases, such as cancer, heart disease, mental illness, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
CRISPR-Cas9
● Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. A recent one is known as CRISPR-Cas9, which is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9.
● This method of genome editing is faster, cheaper, more accurate, and more efficient than other existing methods.
● In essence, the technology works in a simple way — it locates the specific area in the genetic sequence which has been diagnosed to be the cause of the problem, cuts it out, and replaces it with a new and correct sequence that no longer causes the problem.
● Statement 2 is correct: The technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
How does it work?
● An RNA molecule is programmed to locate the particular problematic sequence on the DNA strand, and a special protein called Cas9, which now is often described in popular literature as ‘genetic scissor’, is used to break and remove the problematic sequence.
● A DNA strand, when broken, has a natural tendency to repair itself. But the auto-repair mechanism can lead to the re-growth of a problematic sequence. Scientists intervene during this auto-repair process by supplying the desired sequence of genetic codes, which replaces the original sequence.
● It is like cutting a portion of a long zipper somewhere in between, and replacing that portion with a fresh segment.
A to Z of UPSC Preparation- For Aspirants aiming for UPSC CSE 2026/27 Examination.
Join Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS (AIR 59) and Director of Officers IAS Academy, for an eye-opening workshop on A to Z of UPSC preparation... Learn how to approach UPSC CSE in the right way and achieve your dreams!
Date: Saturday, 21st June 2025
Time: 10:30 AM
Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai
Mode: Offline
Get practical tips, insights, and the confidence to crack UPSC Civil services exam.
Register Now: https://forms.gle/ZWLDRAixUeQqpxvf7
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#IAS #IPS #UPSC #Workshop #IASExam #IPSDream #OfficersIASAcademy #LanguageNoBarrier #TamilMedium #UPSCinTamil
Join Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS (AIR 59) and Director of Officers IAS Academy, for an eye-opening workshop on A to Z of UPSC preparation... Learn how to approach UPSC CSE in the right way and achieve your dreams!
Date: Saturday, 21st June 2025
Time: 10:30 AM
Venue: Officers IAS Academy, Chennai
Mode: Offline
Get practical tips, insights, and the confidence to crack UPSC Civil services exam.
Register Now: https://forms.gle/ZWLDRAixUeQqpxvf7
For more details, contact us: +91 93637 30226
#IAS #IPS #UPSC #Workshop #IASExam #IPSDream #OfficersIASAcademy #LanguageNoBarrier #TamilMedium #UPSCinTamil
1. Which organization is responsible for developing the HSN codes globally?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
30%
A. World Trade Organization (WTO)
16%
B. United Nations (UN)
47%
C. World Customs Organization (WCO)
7%
D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2. Consider the following statements about the Technical Textiles
1) They are engineered products with a definite functionality.
2) They are manufactured using natural fibers only.
1) They are engineered products with a definite functionality.
2) They are manufactured using natural fibers only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
64%
A. 1 only
10%
B. 2 only
20%
C. Both 1 and 2
5%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
● The Harmonized Commodity Description and Coding System generally referred to as
"Harmonized System" or simply "HS" is a multipurpose international product
nomenclature developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO) in 1988.
○ WCO, established in 1952 is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is
to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.
○ WCO represents 185 Customs administrations across the globe (including India) that
collectively process approximately 98% of world trade.
● It is a six-digit code that classifies more than 5000 products, arranged in a legal and logical
structure. To achieve uniform classification, the HS Nomenclature is supported by well-
defined rules and is accepted worldwide.
● HSN code is used by customs authorities, statistical agencies, and other government
regulatory bodies, to monitor and control the import and export of commodities.
○ India has been using HSN codes since 1986 to classify commodities for Customs and
Central Excise.
Explanation
● The Harmonized Commodity Description and Coding System generally referred to as
"Harmonized System" or simply "HS" is a multipurpose international product
nomenclature developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO) in 1988.
○ WCO, established in 1952 is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is
to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.
○ WCO represents 185 Customs administrations across the globe (including India) that
collectively process approximately 98% of world trade.
● It is a six-digit code that classifies more than 5000 products, arranged in a legal and logical
structure. To achieve uniform classification, the HS Nomenclature is supported by well-
defined rules and is accepted worldwide.
● HSN code is used by customs authorities, statistical agencies, and other government
regulatory bodies, to monitor and control the import and export of commodities.
○ India has been using HSN codes since 1986 to classify commodities for Customs and
Central Excise.
Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Technical textiles are textile materials and products used
primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than their
aesthetic or decorative characteristics. They are engineered products with a definite
functionality.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Technical textiles are manufactured using natural as well as
man-made fibers such as Nomex, Kevlar, Spandex, Twaron that exhibit enhanced
functional properties such as higher tenacity, excellent insulation, improved thermal
resistance etc.
● These products find end-use application across multiple non-conventional textile industries
such as healthcare, construction, automobile, aerospace, sports, defense and agriculture.
About NTTM
● To position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles, the Ministry of Textiles launched
the National Technical Textile Mission in 2020.
● The Mission also supports the ‘Make in India’ initiative promoting domestic
manufacturing of related machinery and equipment.
● The Mission has a target to take the domestic market size of the technical textile sector
to $ 40-50 Bn by the year 2024 with an average growth rate of 15-20% per annum.
● The Mission comprise of the following four components:
○ Research, Innovation and Development
○ Promotion and Market Development
○ Export Promotion
○ Education, Training, Skill Development.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Technical textiles are textile materials and products used
primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than their
aesthetic or decorative characteristics. They are engineered products with a definite
functionality.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Technical textiles are manufactured using natural as well as
man-made fibers such as Nomex, Kevlar, Spandex, Twaron that exhibit enhanced
functional properties such as higher tenacity, excellent insulation, improved thermal
resistance etc.
● These products find end-use application across multiple non-conventional textile industries
such as healthcare, construction, automobile, aerospace, sports, defense and agriculture.
About NTTM
● To position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles, the Ministry of Textiles launched
the National Technical Textile Mission in 2020.
● The Mission also supports the ‘Make in India’ initiative promoting domestic
manufacturing of related machinery and equipment.
● The Mission has a target to take the domestic market size of the technical textile sector
to $ 40-50 Bn by the year 2024 with an average growth rate of 15-20% per annum.
● The Mission comprise of the following four components:
○ Research, Innovation and Development
○ Promotion and Market Development
○ Export Promotion
○ Education, Training, Skill Development.
3. Consider the following statements
1) Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable energy and has a
lower carbon footprint.
2) Blue hydrogen is produced from natural gas where the associated emissions are released to
the air.
3) Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen
and solid carbon.
1) Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable energy and has a
lower carbon footprint.
2) Blue hydrogen is produced from natural gas where the associated emissions are released to
the air.
3) Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen
and solid carbon.