5. Consider the following statements about The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement
for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
1) It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between countries around the Pacific Rim.
2) China is a party to the CPTPP.
for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
1) It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between countries around the Pacific Rim.
2) China is a party to the CPTPP.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
38%
A. 1 only
16%
B. 2 only
42%
C. Both 1 and 2
4%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Exclusive Guidance Session for Personal Interview
Prepare to ace your personal interview for the Tamil Nadu Chief Minister's Fellowship Programme with expert insights from none other than Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, ex-IAS, and Director of Officers IAS Academy!
Date: Today, 18/11/24
Time: 3:00 PM
Venue: Gandhi Hall, OIA (Officers IAS Academy), Anna Nagar, Chennai
Mode: Online & Offline
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Exclusive Guidance Session for Personal Interview
Prepare to ace your personal interview for the Tamil Nadu Chief Minister's Fellowship Programme with expert insights from none other than Mr. R.A. Israel Jebasingh, ex-IAS, and Director of Officers IAS Academy!
Date: Today, 18/11/24
Time: 3:00 PM
Venue: Gandhi Hall, OIA (Officers IAS Academy), Anna Nagar, Chennai
Mode: Online & Offline
What to Expect:
Expert strategies to ace your personal interview
Tips to present yourself with confidence and clarity
Insights into the expectations of the panel
Comprehensive DAF SWOT Analysis
Contact us now: +91 7397 767 226
Address: 935, 6th Ave, Anna Nagar, Chennai - 600040
#TamilNaduCMFellowship #PersonalInterviewPreparation #OfficersIASAcademy #GuidanceSession #ExIASMentor #TamilNaduGovernmentProgram #ChennaiEvents
1.Antariksha Abhyas, conducted by Defence Space Agency, aimed at improving?
choose the best answer
Anonymous Quiz
11%
A. Nuclear Warfare
69%
B. Space Warfare
17%
C. Cyber Warfare
3%
D. Bio Warfare
Answer: B
Explanation
● The tri-service Defence Space Agency has conducted its maiden tabletop Exercise
'Antariksha Abhyas 2024' aimed at bolstering the strategic readiness of the Indian armed
forces in the domain of space warfare. Hence, answer is option B.
● The discussions highlighted the importance of monitoring and protecting critical assets and
maintaining situational awareness in the increasingly contested space environment
Explanation
● The tri-service Defence Space Agency has conducted its maiden tabletop Exercise
'Antariksha Abhyas 2024' aimed at bolstering the strategic readiness of the Indian armed
forces in the domain of space warfare. Hence, answer is option B.
● The discussions highlighted the importance of monitoring and protecting critical assets and
maintaining situational awareness in the increasingly contested space environment
2. Consider the following statements about NATO.
1) Article 5 of the Washington Treaty provides for collective defence.
2) Article 5 of the Washington Treaty has never been invoked.
3) New Zealand and Israel are part of NATO Plus grouping.
1) Article 5 of the Washington Treaty provides for collective defence.
2) Article 5 of the Washington Treaty has never been invoked.
3) New Zealand and Israel are part of NATO Plus grouping.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
A. Only one
64%
B. Only two
14%
C. All three
0%
D. None
Answer: B
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a political
and military alliance of 32 countries from North America and Europe.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an
attack against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
Hence. statement 1 is correct.
Did you know?
● Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan. Hence. statement 2 is incorrect.
● NATO's Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
Members:
● At present, NATO has 32 members.
● In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the Alliance: Belgium, Canada,
Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal,
the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia,
Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009),
Montenegro (2017) North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
NATO Plus:
● NATO Plus is a security arrangement that brings together NATO and five
aligned nations (Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea) to
enhance global defence cooperation. Hence. statement 3 is correct.
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a political
and military alliance of 32 countries from North America and Europe.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an
attack against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
Hence. statement 1 is correct.
Did you know?
● Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan. Hence. statement 2 is incorrect.
● NATO's Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
Members:
● At present, NATO has 32 members.
● In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the Alliance: Belgium, Canada,
Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal,
the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia,
Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009),
Montenegro (2017) North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
NATO Plus:
● NATO Plus is a security arrangement that brings together NATO and five
aligned nations (Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea) to
enhance global defence cooperation. Hence. statement 3 is correct.
3. Consider the following statements about ‘Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS)’?
1) CCS can contribute to stabilizing atmospheric CO2 levels.
2) CCS can contribute to energy security.
3) CCS can help cut down on the cost of industrial processes.
1) CCS can contribute to stabilizing atmospheric CO2 levels.
2) CCS can contribute to energy security.
3) CCS can help cut down on the cost of industrial processes.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
A. 1 and 2 only
17%
B. 1 and 3 only
12%
C. 2 and 3 only
53%
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about innocent passage.
1) Only merchant ships of foreign countries are allowed innocent passage through territorial
sea.
2) Under UNCLOS, the right to the innocent passage can never be suspended.
1) Only merchant ships of foreign countries are allowed innocent passage through territorial
sea.
2) Under UNCLOS, the right to the innocent passage can never be suspended.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
A. 1 only
17%
B. 2 only
25%
C. Both 1 and 2
38%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
What is meant by carbon capture and storage?
● Carbon capture and storage (CCS) refers to technologies that can capture carbon dioxide
(CO₂) at a source of emissions before it is released into the atmosphere.
● These sources include the fossil fuel industry (where coal, oil and gas are combusted to
generate power) and industrial processes like steel and cement production.
● Process involved
○ Capture: CO2 is captured at its source, typically from industrial facilities or power
plants, before it is released into the atmosphere.
○ Transportation: The captured CO2 is then transported, often by pipelines, to a
suitable storage site.
○ Storage: The final step involves injecting the CO2 into geological formations such
as depleted oil and gas fields or deep saline aquifers.
Benefits of CCS
● By capturing CO2 emissions from various sources, CCS can help stabilize atmospheric CO2
levels, which is crucial for addressing climate change. Hence. statement 1 is correct.
● CCS can contribute to energy security by allowing for the continued use of domestic fossil
fuel resources, which can help reduce reliance on imported energy sources. Hence.
statement 2 is correct.
● CCS technologies can be integrated into industrial processes to improve efficiency and reduce
emissions, leading to cost savings and environmental benefits. Hence. statement 3 is
correct.
Explanation
What is meant by carbon capture and storage?
● Carbon capture and storage (CCS) refers to technologies that can capture carbon dioxide
(CO₂) at a source of emissions before it is released into the atmosphere.
● These sources include the fossil fuel industry (where coal, oil and gas are combusted to
generate power) and industrial processes like steel and cement production.
● Process involved
○ Capture: CO2 is captured at its source, typically from industrial facilities or power
plants, before it is released into the atmosphere.
○ Transportation: The captured CO2 is then transported, often by pipelines, to a
suitable storage site.
○ Storage: The final step involves injecting the CO2 into geological formations such
as depleted oil and gas fields or deep saline aquifers.
Benefits of CCS
● By capturing CO2 emissions from various sources, CCS can help stabilize atmospheric CO2
levels, which is crucial for addressing climate change. Hence. statement 1 is correct.
● CCS can contribute to energy security by allowing for the continued use of domestic fossil
fuel resources, which can help reduce reliance on imported energy sources. Hence.
statement 2 is correct.
● CCS technologies can be integrated into industrial processes to improve efficiency and reduce
emissions, leading to cost savings and environmental benefits. Hence. statement 3 is
correct.
Answer: D
Explanation
● According to UNCLOS, the territorial sea can be defined as the area which extends up to 12
nautical miles from the baseline of a country’s coastal state. The territorial sea is under the
jurisdiction of that particular country; however, foreign ships (both merchant and military)
ships are allowed passage through it. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● This type of passage of territorial passage of foreign ships is known as an innocent
passage. However, the right to the innocent passage can be suspended if there is a threat to
the security of the coastal state. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation
● According to UNCLOS, the territorial sea can be defined as the area which extends up to 12
nautical miles from the baseline of a country’s coastal state. The territorial sea is under the
jurisdiction of that particular country; however, foreign ships (both merchant and military)
ships are allowed passage through it. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● This type of passage of territorial passage of foreign ships is known as an innocent
passage. However, the right to the innocent passage can be suspended if there is a threat to
the security of the coastal state. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
1. ‘Right to Shelter’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. Article 14
8%
B. Article 17
13%
C. Article 19
71%
D. Article 21
Answer: D
Explanation
● Imposing a pan-India ban on instant ‘bulldozer justice’, Supreme Court has held
demolition of a citizen's house merely because he is an accused or even a convict, that too
without following the due process as prescribed by law, will be “totally unconstitutional”.
● The apex court underlined that right to shelter is part of right to life guaranteed under
Article 21 of the Constitution. Hence, answer is option D.
● It laid down detailed guidelines for razing illegal structures and ruled that a state cannot
breach a family’s right to shelter by demolishing their house only because one of its
members is accused of a heinous crime.
● The order calls for 15 days’ notice, served on the owner by registered post, containing
details of the violations as well as the grounds for the action to be taken.
● A personal hearing, a reasoned order and an inspection report signed by witnesses have
also been made mandatory.
Explanation
● Imposing a pan-India ban on instant ‘bulldozer justice’, Supreme Court has held
demolition of a citizen's house merely because he is an accused or even a convict, that too
without following the due process as prescribed by law, will be “totally unconstitutional”.
● The apex court underlined that right to shelter is part of right to life guaranteed under
Article 21 of the Constitution. Hence, answer is option D.
● It laid down detailed guidelines for razing illegal structures and ruled that a state cannot
breach a family’s right to shelter by demolishing their house only because one of its
members is accused of a heinous crime.
● The order calls for 15 days’ notice, served on the owner by registered post, containing
details of the violations as well as the grounds for the action to be taken.
● A personal hearing, a reasoned order and an inspection report signed by witnesses have
also been made mandatory.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
A. Only one
25%
B. Only two
69%
C. All three
2%
D. None
2. Consider the following statements.
1) India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD).
2) Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act draws from the United Nations Convention
on Rights of Persons with Disabilities.
3) United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD) obliges India to
promote accessibility as an essential right.
1) India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD).
2) Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act draws from the United Nations Convention
on Rights of Persons with Disabilities.
3) United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD) obliges India to
promote accessibility as an essential right.
Answer: C
Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act:
● As a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(CRPD), India is obligated to promote accessibility as an essential right. Hence,
statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Enacted in 2016, the RPwD Act draws on the CRPD and aims “to ensure that all persons
with disabilities can lead their lives with dignity, without discrimination and with
equal opportunities.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○ The Act increased types of disabilities from existing 7 to 21.
○ All Government institutions of higher education and those getting aid from the
Government are required to reserve at least 5% of seats for persons with
benchmark disabilities.
○ Four percent reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities is to be
provided in posts of all Government establishments with differential quotas for
different forms of disabilities.
○ Incentives to employers in the private sector are to be given who provide 5%
reservation for persons with benchmark disability.
● The RPwD Rules of 2017, framed under the Act, were to lay down specific accessibility
standards.
● So far, 17 standards and guidelines have been notified across government ministries and
departments. The lack of uniformity across the different guidelines would create issues
in enforcement, the SC noted.
● It added that once the mandatory rules are prescribed, the Centre, state governments and
union territories would have to ensure that non-compliance with the accessibility
standards is penalised.
Why in news?
● A bench of the Supreme Court has ordered the Union government to frame mandatory rules for ensuring the accessibility of public places and services to persons with disabilities.
● The apex court reaffirmed accessibility as a fundamental right and noted that the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act were not being treated as mandatory.
Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act:
● As a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(CRPD), India is obligated to promote accessibility as an essential right. Hence,
statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Enacted in 2016, the RPwD Act draws on the CRPD and aims “to ensure that all persons
with disabilities can lead their lives with dignity, without discrimination and with
equal opportunities.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○ The Act increased types of disabilities from existing 7 to 21.
○ All Government institutions of higher education and those getting aid from the
Government are required to reserve at least 5% of seats for persons with
benchmark disabilities.
○ Four percent reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities is to be
provided in posts of all Government establishments with differential quotas for
different forms of disabilities.
○ Incentives to employers in the private sector are to be given who provide 5%
reservation for persons with benchmark disability.
● The RPwD Rules of 2017, framed under the Act, were to lay down specific accessibility
standards.
● So far, 17 standards and guidelines have been notified across government ministries and
departments. The lack of uniformity across the different guidelines would create issues
in enforcement, the SC noted.
● It added that once the mandatory rules are prescribed, the Centre, state governments and
union territories would have to ensure that non-compliance with the accessibility
standards is penalised.
Why in news?
● A bench of the Supreme Court has ordered the Union government to frame mandatory rules for ensuring the accessibility of public places and services to persons with disabilities.
● The apex court reaffirmed accessibility as a fundamental right and noted that the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act were not being treated as mandatory.