Answer: B
Explanation
● It is located in Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
● The Vegetation comprises tropical moist deciduous forests, semi-evergreen patches, Grasslands, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Fauna such as Bengal tiger, Elephants, Indian Bison, Sambar deer, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, etc are found here.
● Major rivers such as the Khairi, Palpala, and Budhabalanga rivers originate here.
● Tribes such as Erenga Kharias, Mankirdias, Ho, Gonda, etc inhabit the forests of the tiger reserve. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● It is also designated as a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation
● It is located in Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
● The Vegetation comprises tropical moist deciduous forests, semi-evergreen patches, Grasslands, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Fauna such as Bengal tiger, Elephants, Indian Bison, Sambar deer, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, etc are found here.
● Major rivers such as the Khairi, Palpala, and Budhabalanga rivers originate here.
● Tribes such as Erenga Kharias, Mankirdias, Ho, Gonda, etc inhabit the forests of the tiger reserve. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● It is also designated as a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the World Test Championship 2021-23.
1) India won the championship.
2) India entered the final of the championship based on the number of matches it won.
1) India won the championship.
2) India entered the final of the championship based on the number of matches it won.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A. 1 only
38%
B. 2 only
23%
C. Both 1 and 2
31%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Australia won the championship by defeating India in the final. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Teams will qualify on a percentage of points won basis to standardise the imbalance in the number of matches played by teams. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
● Australia won the championship by defeating India in the final. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Teams will qualify on a percentage of points won basis to standardise the imbalance in the number of matches played by teams. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
1. Consider the following statements about the Aditya L-1 Mission.
1) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC) is one of the main payloads of the spacecraft.
2) VELC can help to study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards.
3) Coronal mass ejections have the potential to disrupt radio communication networks on earth.
1) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC) is one of the main payloads of the spacecraft.
2) VELC can help to study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards.
3) Coronal mass ejections have the potential to disrupt radio communication networks on earth.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
2%
A. 1 only
16%
B. 1 and 2 only
21%
C. 1 and 3 only
61%
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
● ISRO successfully launched the country’s first space mission to study the sun, Aditya-L1.
● The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) carried the 1,475-kg spacecraft to an elliptical orbit around the Earth.
● The main payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC), designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, which will help study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards. The VELC can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, the closest any such payload has imaged. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The payloads on the mission will study the upper atmospheric layers of the Sun called chromosphere and corona. They will study the expulsion of plasma and magnetic fields called coronal mass ejection (CME). The magnetic field of the corona and the drivers of the space weather will also be studied.
● CME can damage the electronics in satellite in near-earth space and disrupt radio communication networks on the earth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation:
● ISRO successfully launched the country’s first space mission to study the sun, Aditya-L1.
● The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) carried the 1,475-kg spacecraft to an elliptical orbit around the Earth.
● The main payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC), designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, which will help study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards. The VELC can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, the closest any such payload has imaged. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The payloads on the mission will study the upper atmospheric layers of the Sun called chromosphere and corona. They will study the expulsion of plasma and magnetic fields called coronal mass ejection (CME). The magnetic field of the corona and the drivers of the space weather will also be studied.
● CME can damage the electronics in satellite in near-earth space and disrupt radio communication networks on the earth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
2. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements.
1) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) seeks to implement a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion.
2) Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
1) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) seeks to implement a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion.
2) Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A. 1 only
10%
B. 2 only
83%
C. Both 1 and 2
1%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
● The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal aimed at creating and implementing a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion. Currently, personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters differ significantly across various religious communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 44, part of DPSP of the constitution states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation
● The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal aimed at creating and implementing a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion. Currently, personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters differ significantly across various religious communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 44, part of DPSP of the constitution states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements about reservations.
1) Articles 17 guarantee equality to all citizens in public employment.
2) The Supreme Court fixed a cap of 50% for reservation, in the Golaknath case.
1) Articles 17 guarantee equality to all citizens in public employment.
2) The Supreme Court fixed a cap of 50% for reservation, in the Golaknath case.
Which of the statements(s) given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
14%
A. 1 only
22%
B. 2 only
18%
C. Both 1 and 2
46%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
What is the history of reservation?
● Articles 15 and 16 guarantee equality to all citizens in any policy of the government and public employment respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● In order to achieve social justice, they also enable special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes or OBC, Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
● Reservations for SC and ST are fixed at 15% and 7.5% respectively, in jobs, educational institutions and public sector undertakings (PSU) at the central level.
● It was in 1990, when V. P. Singh was Prime Minister, that 27% reservation for OBC was implemented in central government employment based on Mandal Commission (1980) recommendations.
● Subsequently in 2005, reservation was enabled for OBC, SC and ST in educational institutions including private institutions.
● In 2019, 10% reservation was enabled for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among the unreserved category.
What is the creamy layer?
● The 27% reservation for OBC was upheld by the Supreme Court in the Indra Sawhney case (1992).
● It opined that caste is a determinant of class in the Indian context. However, in order to uphold the basic structure of equality, it fixed a cap of 50% for reservation unless there are exceptional circumstances. The court also provided for exclusion of creamy layer from OBC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● The criteria for identifying a person as part of the creamy layer is based on the recommendations of the Justice Ram Nandan Prasad Committee (1993).
● It is determined by the position/income of an applicant’s parents alone. The criteria for belonging to creamy layer is parental income, excluding income from salary and agricultural income, being more than ₹8 lakh in each year in the last three consecutive financial years.
● Further, the following categories of applicants are also considered as belonging to creamy layer : (a) parents, either of whom entered government service (centre or State) as Group A/Class I officer or parents, both of whom entered as Group B/Class II officers or father, who was recruited in Group B/Class II post and promoted to Group A/Class I before 40 years of age; (b) either of the parents employed in a managerial position in PSUs; (c) either of the parents holding constitutional posts.
Explanation
What is the history of reservation?
● Articles 15 and 16 guarantee equality to all citizens in any policy of the government and public employment respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● In order to achieve social justice, they also enable special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes or OBC, Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
● Reservations for SC and ST are fixed at 15% and 7.5% respectively, in jobs, educational institutions and public sector undertakings (PSU) at the central level.
● It was in 1990, when V. P. Singh was Prime Minister, that 27% reservation for OBC was implemented in central government employment based on Mandal Commission (1980) recommendations.
● Subsequently in 2005, reservation was enabled for OBC, SC and ST in educational institutions including private institutions.
● In 2019, 10% reservation was enabled for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among the unreserved category.
What is the creamy layer?
● The 27% reservation for OBC was upheld by the Supreme Court in the Indra Sawhney case (1992).
● It opined that caste is a determinant of class in the Indian context. However, in order to uphold the basic structure of equality, it fixed a cap of 50% for reservation unless there are exceptional circumstances. The court also provided for exclusion of creamy layer from OBC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● The criteria for identifying a person as part of the creamy layer is based on the recommendations of the Justice Ram Nandan Prasad Committee (1993).
● It is determined by the position/income of an applicant’s parents alone. The criteria for belonging to creamy layer is parental income, excluding income from salary and agricultural income, being more than ₹8 lakh in each year in the last three consecutive financial years.
● Further, the following categories of applicants are also considered as belonging to creamy layer : (a) parents, either of whom entered government service (centre or State) as Group A/Class I officer or parents, both of whom entered as Group B/Class II officers or father, who was recruited in Group B/Class II post and promoted to Group A/Class I before 40 years of age; (b) either of the parents employed in a managerial position in PSUs; (c) either of the parents holding constitutional posts.
4. Consider the following statements in respect of the Collegium.
1) It is a body comprising the Chief Justice of India and the four senior most judges of the Supreme Court.
2) It is clearly defined in the constitution.
1) It is a body comprising the Chief Justice of India and the four senior most judges of the Supreme Court.
2) It is clearly defined in the constitution.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
76%
A. 1 only
8%
B. 2 only
10%
C. Both 1 and 2
6%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Our Academy is proud to support the initiative led by the Hon'ble Chief Minister M.K. Stalin to provide quality coaching for UPSC and TNPSC aspirants in his constituency. This significant moment was marked when our Director, Israel Jebasingh ex-IAS, met with the Hon'ble CM to discuss and collaborate on this impactful endeavor
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Under the system, the Chief Justice of India along with four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend appointments and transfers of judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● A High Court Collegium, meanwhile, is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the two senior most judges of that court.
● The Collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution. Instead, it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● In this system, the government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court.
● The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the Collegium’s choices, but, if the Collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them to the post.
Explanation:
● Under the system, the Chief Justice of India along with four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend appointments and transfers of judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● A High Court Collegium, meanwhile, is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the two senior most judges of that court.
● The Collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution. Instead, it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● In this system, the government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court.
● The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the Collegium’s choices, but, if the Collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them to the post.
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General Quiz by Officers IAS Academy(Online).
Date: November 06, 2024
Time: 6:00 PM
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https://youtube.com/live/rpG_ekPlWRQ?feature=share
General Quiz by Officers IAS Academy(Online).
Date: November 06, 2024
Time: 6:00 PM
Don't miss out on this opportunity to showcase your knowledge and compete with fun! See you at the quiz!
Join our WhatsApp channel for upcoming quiz and Events: https://www.whatsapp.com/channel/0029VailiJKHFxOzTmCQHa3M