Answer: B
Explanation
● The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is a framework of BRICS for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures. Hence, answer is option B.
About BRICS
● BRICS brings together five major emerging economies- China, Brazil, Russia, India and South Africa.
● The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC (Brazil, Russia,China and India) Foreign Ministers on the margins of the UNGA in New York in 2006.
● The first BRIC Summit was held in Russia, in 2009.
● South Africa was added to the grouping in 2011 creating “BRICS”.
● BRICS cooperation is aimed at complementing and strengthening existing bilateral and multilateral relations among member countries.
● The Chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
● Cooperation among members is predicated on three levels or “tracks” of interaction, namely:
○ Track I: Formal diplomatic engagement between national governments
○ Track II: Engagement through government-affiliated institutions, such as state-owned enterprises and business councils
○ Track III: Civil society and people-to-people engagement
BRICS Expansion
● After the summit in South Africa in 2023 6 countries were invited to join BRICS. They were Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
● Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and the United Arab Emirates joined the grouping in January 2024.
● Saudi Arabia has accepted the invitation but delayed formal joining.
● Argentina has declined the invitation.
● The organisation now represents almost half the world’s population and almost one quarter of the world’s economy.
Explanation
● The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is a framework of BRICS for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures. Hence, answer is option B.
About BRICS
● BRICS brings together five major emerging economies- China, Brazil, Russia, India and South Africa.
● The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC (Brazil, Russia,China and India) Foreign Ministers on the margins of the UNGA in New York in 2006.
● The first BRIC Summit was held in Russia, in 2009.
● South Africa was added to the grouping in 2011 creating “BRICS”.
● BRICS cooperation is aimed at complementing and strengthening existing bilateral and multilateral relations among member countries.
● The Chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
● Cooperation among members is predicated on three levels or “tracks” of interaction, namely:
○ Track I: Formal diplomatic engagement between national governments
○ Track II: Engagement through government-affiliated institutions, such as state-owned enterprises and business councils
○ Track III: Civil society and people-to-people engagement
BRICS Expansion
● After the summit in South Africa in 2023 6 countries were invited to join BRICS. They were Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
● Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and the United Arab Emirates joined the grouping in January 2024.
● Saudi Arabia has accepted the invitation but delayed formal joining.
● Argentina has declined the invitation.
● The organisation now represents almost half the world’s population and almost one quarter of the world’s economy.
2. Consider the following statements about the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister.
1) It is a constitutional body.
2) It can analyze issues, either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister.
1) It is a constitutional body.
2) It can analyze issues, either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
1%
A. 1 only
76%
B. 2 only
13%
C. Both 1 and 2
9%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
EAC-PM
● Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is a non-constitutional, non-permanent and independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister.
● These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● The chairman is appointed from time to time when the body is constituted.
Explanation:
EAC-PM
● Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is a non-constitutional, non-permanent and independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister.
● These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● The chairman is appointed from time to time when the body is constituted.
3. With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme, consider the following statements.
1) Every rural household has the right to register for employment.
2) Half of the stipulated workforce must be women.
3) The wages are revised by indexing them to the Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) .
1) Every rural household has the right to register for employment.
2) Half of the stipulated workforce must be women.
3) The wages are revised by indexing them to the Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) .
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
A. 1 only
43%
B. 1 and 3 only
30%
C. 2 only
17%
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation
● Every rural household has the right to register under MGNREGA. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● One-third of the stipulated workforce must be women. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Work site facilities such as creche, drinking water and shade have to be provided.
● The employment will be provided within a radius of 5 km: if it is above 5 km extra wage will be paid.
● MGNREGA wage rates vary from state to state and are revised by indexing them to the Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) for a particular state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation
● Every rural household has the right to register under MGNREGA. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● One-third of the stipulated workforce must be women. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Work site facilities such as creche, drinking water and shade have to be provided.
● The employment will be provided within a radius of 5 km: if it is above 5 km extra wage will be paid.
● MGNREGA wage rates vary from state to state and are revised by indexing them to the Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) for a particular state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
4. Consider the following statements about Simlipal Tiger Reserve.
1) It is a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB).
2) The vegetation is made entirely of tropical moist deciduous type.
3) Ho and Gonda tribes inhabit forests in this reserve.
1) It is a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB).
2) The vegetation is made entirely of tropical moist deciduous type.
3) Ho and Gonda tribes inhabit forests in this reserve.
Which of the above statements(s) are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. 1 and 2 only
53%
B. 1 and 3 only
8%
C. 2 and 3 only
30%
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation
● It is located in Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
● The Vegetation comprises tropical moist deciduous forests, semi-evergreen patches, Grasslands, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Fauna such as Bengal tiger, Elephants, Indian Bison, Sambar deer, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, etc are found here.
● Major rivers such as the Khairi, Palpala, and Budhabalanga rivers originate here.
● Tribes such as Erenga Kharias, Mankirdias, Ho, Gonda, etc inhabit the forests of the tiger reserve. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● It is also designated as a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation
● It is located in Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
● The Vegetation comprises tropical moist deciduous forests, semi-evergreen patches, Grasslands, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Fauna such as Bengal tiger, Elephants, Indian Bison, Sambar deer, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, etc are found here.
● Major rivers such as the Khairi, Palpala, and Budhabalanga rivers originate here.
● Tribes such as Erenga Kharias, Mankirdias, Ho, Gonda, etc inhabit the forests of the tiger reserve. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● It is also designated as a Biosphere Reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the World Test Championship 2021-23.
1) India won the championship.
2) India entered the final of the championship based on the number of matches it won.
1) India won the championship.
2) India entered the final of the championship based on the number of matches it won.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A. 1 only
38%
B. 2 only
23%
C. Both 1 and 2
31%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Australia won the championship by defeating India in the final. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Teams will qualify on a percentage of points won basis to standardise the imbalance in the number of matches played by teams. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
● Australia won the championship by defeating India in the final. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Teams will qualify on a percentage of points won basis to standardise the imbalance in the number of matches played by teams. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
1. Consider the following statements about the Aditya L-1 Mission.
1) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC) is one of the main payloads of the spacecraft.
2) VELC can help to study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards.
3) Coronal mass ejections have the potential to disrupt radio communication networks on earth.
1) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC) is one of the main payloads of the spacecraft.
2) VELC can help to study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards.
3) Coronal mass ejections have the potential to disrupt radio communication networks on earth.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
2%
A. 1 only
16%
B. 1 and 2 only
21%
C. 1 and 3 only
61%
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
● ISRO successfully launched the country’s first space mission to study the sun, Aditya-L1.
● The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) carried the 1,475-kg spacecraft to an elliptical orbit around the Earth.
● The main payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC), designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, which will help study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards. The VELC can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, the closest any such payload has imaged. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The payloads on the mission will study the upper atmospheric layers of the Sun called chromosphere and corona. They will study the expulsion of plasma and magnetic fields called coronal mass ejection (CME). The magnetic field of the corona and the drivers of the space weather will also be studied.
● CME can damage the electronics in satellite in near-earth space and disrupt radio communication networks on the earth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation:
● ISRO successfully launched the country’s first space mission to study the sun, Aditya-L1.
● The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) carried the 1,475-kg spacecraft to an elliptical orbit around the Earth.
● The main payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VLEC), designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, which will help study the solar corona from the lowermost part upwards. The VELC can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, the closest any such payload has imaged. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The payloads on the mission will study the upper atmospheric layers of the Sun called chromosphere and corona. They will study the expulsion of plasma and magnetic fields called coronal mass ejection (CME). The magnetic field of the corona and the drivers of the space weather will also be studied.
● CME can damage the electronics in satellite in near-earth space and disrupt radio communication networks on the earth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
2. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements.
1) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) seeks to implement a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion.
2) Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
1) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) seeks to implement a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion.
2) Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A. 1 only
10%
B. 2 only
83%
C. Both 1 and 2
1%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
● The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal aimed at creating and implementing a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion. Currently, personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters differ significantly across various religious communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 44, part of DPSP of the constitution states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation
● The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal aimed at creating and implementing a set of personal laws applicable equally to all citizens, irrespective of their religion. Currently, personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters differ significantly across various religious communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 44, part of DPSP of the constitution states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements about reservations.
1) Articles 17 guarantee equality to all citizens in public employment.
2) The Supreme Court fixed a cap of 50% for reservation, in the Golaknath case.
1) Articles 17 guarantee equality to all citizens in public employment.
2) The Supreme Court fixed a cap of 50% for reservation, in the Golaknath case.